- #1
muppet
- 608
- 1
Hi all,
I'm trying to understand Peskin's treatment of the Wilsonian approach to renormalisation, in chapter 12. The essential (i.e textbook-independent) question I have is: why does integrating out the high-momentum modes generate all possible interactions?
I understand part of the answer- one has a coupling of high-and low frequency modes, and doing the path integral over the high frequency modes (denoted by a circumflex) means that terms like
[tex](\phi\phi\phi\hat{\phi})^2[/tex]
will generate a phi^6 interaction.
What I think it is that I don't understand is the role played by the momentum of the external particles. Peskin argues that "a more exact treatment would taylor expand in [the external momenta of the diagrams]", but it isn't clear to me what's being expanded (a diagram? the n-point correlation function?) or why we have to expand in this Wilsonian treatment when we wouldn't ordinarily. To be honest, some complementary references would be good.
Thanks in advance.
I'm trying to understand Peskin's treatment of the Wilsonian approach to renormalisation, in chapter 12. The essential (i.e textbook-independent) question I have is: why does integrating out the high-momentum modes generate all possible interactions?
I understand part of the answer- one has a coupling of high-and low frequency modes, and doing the path integral over the high frequency modes (denoted by a circumflex) means that terms like
[tex](\phi\phi\phi\hat{\phi})^2[/tex]
will generate a phi^6 interaction.
What I think it is that I don't understand is the role played by the momentum of the external particles. Peskin argues that "a more exact treatment would taylor expand in [the external momenta of the diagrams]", but it isn't clear to me what's being expanded (a diagram? the n-point correlation function?) or why we have to expand in this Wilsonian treatment when we wouldn't ordinarily. To be honest, some complementary references would be good.
Thanks in advance.