Reynolds Number and Friction Factor: How Does It Work?

AI Thread Summary
An increase in Reynolds number indicates a transition from laminar to turbulent flow, which typically leads to greater energy loss due to eddies. However, the friction factor decreases with higher Reynolds numbers, as shown in the Moody diagram and supported by experimental data. This counterintuitive relationship occurs because the increase in flow velocity affects dynamic pressure more significantly than the decrease in friction factor. Consequently, while turbulence increases flow complexity, the overall wall shear stress can still rise due to the dominant effect of dynamic pressure. Understanding this relationship is crucial for accurate fluid dynamics analysis.
thereisnospoo
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
So, I understand that when reynolds number increases, the fluid becomes more turbulent, and there is a greater energy loss due to formation of eddies. However, shouldn't this increase in reynolds number cause an increase in friction as well?

But, according to the moody diagram (http://piping-designer.com/wiki/images/0/05/Moody-Diagram.jpg)
as well as experimental data I have collected, it seems that friction factor actually decreases as reynolds number increases. How is this possible, if increasing turbulence causes more haphazard flow, wouldn't their be greater frictional forces?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The drag shear stress at the wall is equal to the friction factor times the dynamic pressure ##\rho \frac{v^2}{2}##, and the latter increases with flow velocity more than the friction factor decreases. So the net effect is an increase in the frictional wall stress.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top