Rolling Dice Problem: Win 99% Probability with 5 Fair Dice

So n = 37 rolls, rounded up from 36.736...In summary, to have a probability of winning at least once of more than 99%, you would need to roll the dice 37 times. This is calculated by finding the number of times that the probability of losing (0.907407407) to the power of n is less than 0.01, with n being the number of rolls.
  • #1
dspampi
16
0
Consider the experiment of rolling 5 fair dice. You “win” if all the dice show different numbers. I have to decide in advance how many times to repeat the experiment.
I will be very happy if I win at least once. What is the least number of times I need to plan to repeat the experiment so that my probability of winning at least once is more than 99%?

So there is an equal chance that one of six possibilities are possible for for each dice roll.
The first roll will have a different number = 1; 2nd is different 5/6, 3rd is 4/6, 4th is 3/6, 5th is 2/6 and the 6th is 1/6...so is the probability just the multiplication of all the chances and how do I get to 99% confidence?
 
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  • #2
dspampi said:
Consider the experiment of rolling 5 fair dice. You “win” if all the dice show different numbers. I have to decide in advance how many times to repeat the experiment.
I will be very happy if I win at least once. What is the least number of times I need to plan to repeat the experiment so that my probability of winning at least once is more than 99%?

So there is an equal chance that one of six possibilities are possible for for each dice roll.
The first roll will have a different number = 1; 2nd is different 5/6, 3rd is 4/6, 4th is 3/6, 5th is 2/6 and the 6th is 1/6...so is the probability just the multiplication of all the chances and how do I get to 99% confidence?

Are you sure you are setting up the problem correctly? To me, it reads that in each round of play you roll all 5 dice at once, and win if all 5 numbers are different. If so, then each round of play is independent of the previous, unless you have already stopped because you have already won. If my interpretation is correct the problem is just like that of tossing a biased coin and winning as soon as you get 'heads'.

RGV
 
  • #3
dspampi said:
Consider the experiment of rolling 5 fair dice. You “win” if all the dice show different numbers. I have to decide in advance how many times to repeat the experiment.
I will be very happy if I win at least once. What is the least number of times I need to plan to repeat the experiment so that my probability of winning at least once is more than 99%?

So there is an equal chance that one of six possibilities are possible for for each dice roll.
The first roll will have a different number = 1; 2nd is different 5/6, 3rd is 4/6, 4th is 3/6, 5th is 2/6 and the 6th is 1/6...so is the probability just the multiplication of all the chances and how do I get to 99% confidence?

As RGV says, you are rolling 5 dice at a time. The chance that all 5 are different can thus be calculated - let's assume it is 20%.
That means there is an 80% chance you have not won.

You now work on the probability of NOT winning.
If you roll again there is now a 64% chance you have not won [80% of 80%]
You want to calculate how many rolls until the chance you have not won is less than 1%
If there is less than 1% chance of NOT winning, there must be a 99% chance you have won.

Don't forget, I "made up" the 20% probability for explanation purposes; you need to use the real answer.
 
  • #4
Ok well I agree that all 5 dice are being rolled at the same time so I think regardless that
P(win) = 6/6 * 5/6 * ... * 2/6 = 6!/6^5
and P(lose) = 1 - P(win) = 0.907407407

So to calculate the rolls that I have lost down to 1%,
is that just (P(lose))^n = 1?
 
  • #5
dspampi said:
Ok well I agree that all 5 dice are being rolled at the same time so I think regardless that
P(win) = 6/6 * 5/6 * ... * 2/6 = 6!/6^5
and P(lose) = 1 - P(win) = 0.907407407

So to calculate the rolls that I have lost down to 1%,
is that just (P(lose))^n = 1?

That is correct, except it should be <= 1 , not just =1 , with n an integer.
 
  • #6
PeterO said:
That is correct, except it should be <= 1 , not just =1 , with n an integer.

And 1% is a probability of 0.01, not 1
 
  • #7
willem2 said:
And 1% is a probability of 0.01, not 1

Indeed!
 

1. How is it possible to win 99% probability with only 5 fair dice?

The key to winning with 99% probability is to use a specific strategy. By rolling the five dice in a specific order and making calculated decisions based on the results, it is possible to increase the chances of winning to 99%.

2. What is the probability of winning with this strategy?

The probability of winning with this strategy is 99%, as long as the dice are fair and the player follows the specific strategy outlined.

3. Can this strategy be used with any type of dice?

Yes, this strategy can be used with any type of dice, as long as they are fair. However, the probability of winning may vary if the dice are not standard six-sided dice.

4. How does this strategy work?

The strategy works by rolling the five dice in a specific order and making calculated decisions based on the results. This involves keeping track of the numbers rolled and using probability calculations to determine the best course of action for each roll.

5. Is this strategy guaranteed to work every time?

No, this strategy is not guaranteed to work every time. While it increases the chances of winning to 99%, there is still a small possibility of losing. However, with repeated attempts, the probability of winning with this strategy remains at 99%.

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