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Rotational and translational equilibrium

  1. Feb 24, 2012 #1
    When a ruler is placed on a pivot and I push it down from one side, then there is a moment. But then is there any linear movement? Since there is no translational equilibrium then won't there be a linear motion? Then how does rotational equilibrium come into play here?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 24, 2012 #2

    tiny-tim

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    hi sgstudent! :smile:
    i don't understand :redface:

    if you push it, it will change position …

    where does equilibrium come into it? :confused:
     
  4. Feb 24, 2012 #3
    Oh sorry! I meant that when I push one side of a ruler on a pivot then I'll get a moment that is either clockwise or anticlockwise right? But since there only that downwards force acting on it, won't it mean that it does not have translational equilibrium?
     
  5. Feb 25, 2012 #4

    tiny-tim

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    hi sgstudent! :smile:
    (just got up :zzz:)
    ah!

    but nature automatically supplies an upward reaction force at the pivot …

    which exactly balances the downwards force! :wink:
     
  6. Feb 25, 2012 #5
    Oh, I understand :-) thanks for the help!
     
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