feerrr
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why sup x in [a,b] |Pn(x) - f(x) | < ϵ , Pn(x)=a0+a1x+...+anx^n
why f(x)-ϵ<Pn(x)<f(x)+ϵ
why f(x)-ϵ<Pn(x)<f(x)+ϵ
What I suggest is to look up the theorem on line and find a proof using it. It's still not easy.feerrr said:no i don't know the Weierstrass approximation theorem .
can i show that f(x)=0 without using the Weierstrass approximation theorem ? i need some help