Scalar interactions amd chirality

kimcj
Messages
15
Reaction score
0
why do scalar interactions(for example the higgs vev or its components) reverse the chirality of the interacting particle?? i think this is the key for understanding the mass generation of fermions, but i can't think of a logical reason of the reversed chirality.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I would say it's the exact opposite - because they are scalars, they don't care about chirality and thus can couple left-handed and right-handed fields.
 
Vanadium 50 said:
I would say it's the exact opposite - because they are scalars, they don't care about chirality and thus can couple left-handed and right-handed fields.
ok thanks i understand it sort of(and sorry for posting this as a intermediate level thread. ishouldve posted it as basic...). so scalar interactions preserve angular momentum(i guess helicity... right?) but does not 'think about' chirality and therefore they can couple left-right chiral particles which leads to fermion mass...right?
 
Yes. Since the scalar has zero angular momentum, in order for the interaction term with fermions to be Lorentz invariant, it is necessary to couple a left chiral field to (the conjugate of) a right chiral one. You can compare this to the kinetic terms, where, because of the appearance of the 4-vector derivative (behaves like spin 1), it is necessary to couple a chiral field to a field of the same chirality.
 
  • Like
Likes vanhees71
Toponium is a hadron which is the bound state of a valance top quark and a valance antitop quark. Oversimplified presentations often state that top quarks don't form hadrons, because they decay to bottom quarks extremely rapidly after they are created, leaving no time to form a hadron. And, the vast majority of the time, this is true. But, the lifetime of a top quark is only an average lifetime. Sometimes it decays faster and sometimes it decays slower. In the highly improbable case that...
I'm following this paper by Kitaev on SL(2,R) representations and I'm having a problem in the normalization of the continuous eigenfunctions (eqs. (67)-(70)), which satisfy \langle f_s | f_{s'} \rangle = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{2}{(1-u)^2} f_s(u)^* f_{s'}(u) \, du. \tag{67} The singular contribution of the integral arises at the endpoint u=1 of the integral, and in the limit u \to 1, the function f_s(u) takes on the form f_s(u) \approx a_s (1-u)^{1/2 + i s} + a_s^* (1-u)^{1/2 - i s}. \tag{70}...

Similar threads

Back
Top