Show that this inner product is positive definite

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the inner product defined by the equation g(f,f) = ∫₀¹ f(-p'f' - pf'' + qf)dx is positive definite. The participants confirm that the inner product is positive definite due to the properties of the functions involved, specifically that p and q are positive. The key conditions for positive definiteness are outlined: g(f,f) must be greater than or equal to zero for all f in V₀, and g(f,f) equals zero implies f equals zero. The continuity of the function plays a crucial role in establishing these properties.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of inner product spaces
  • Knowledge of integration by parts
  • Familiarity with properties of positive definite functions
  • Basic concepts of functional analysis
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of inner products in functional spaces
  • Learn about the implications of continuity in functional analysis
  • Explore the theorem regarding non-negative functions and integrals
  • Investigate examples of positive definite forms in mathematical physics
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Mathematics students, particularly those studying functional analysis, and anyone interested in the properties of inner products and their applications in various fields of mathematics.

pondzo
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Homework Statement



MathProblemSheet4#1.PNG


Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



I was able to do the second part of part a using integration by parts. But I am having no luck for the first part, proving that the inner product is positive definite. Pointers are appreciated!
 
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Hint: what does it mean for an inner product to be positive definite?
 
Is this acceptable ?

##g(f,f)=\int_0^1 f(-p'f'-pf''+qf)dx\\~~~~~~~~~~~=\int_0^1-fp'f'-fpf''+qf^2dx\\~~~~~~~~~~~=\int_0^1-ff'p'dx-\int_0^1pff''dx+\int_0^1qf^2dx\\~~~~~~~~~~~=-[fpf']_0^1+\int_0^1p(f')^2dx+\int_0^1pff''dx-\int_0^1pff''dx+\int_0^1qf^2dx\\~~~~~~~~~~~=\int_0^1p(f')^2dx+\int_0^1pf^2dx##
Which is positive definite due to the square and p,q being positive definite and positive or zero.
 
Well, you do not have to do all of the partial integrations as this was the form the inner product was given on from the beginning, and the last p should be a q, but otherwise fine.
 
Oh of course, my mistake!

Do you think you would be able to give me some advice on part b ?

MathProblemSheet4#2.PNG
 
pondzo said:
Is this acceptable ?

##g(f,f)=\int_0^1 f(-p'f'-pf''+qf)dx\\~~~~~~~~~~~=\int_0^1-fp'f'-fpf''+qf^2dx\\~~~~~~~~~~~=\int_0^1-ff'p'dx-\int_0^1pff''dx+\int_0^1qf^2dx\\~~~~~~~~~~~=-[fpf']_0^1+\int_0^1p(f')^2dx+\int_0^1pff''dx-\int_0^1pff''dx+\int_0^1qf^2dx\\~~~~~~~~~~~=\int_0^1p(f')^2dx+\int_0^1pf^2dx##
Which is positive definite due to the square and p,q being positive definite and positive or zero.

No, in the first part of the question, you are being asked to show that for all ##f\in V_0##

(a) ## g(f,f) \ge 0 ##
(b) ## g(f,f) = 0 \Rightarrow f = 0 ##

Point (a) is easy, point (b) is more subtle and continuity plays a central role.

EDIT:
I realized I didn't help much in my post: there is a theorem that says that if ##f: [a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}## is continuous, non-negative, and such that ##\int_a^b f(x) \ dx = 0 ##, then ## f = 0 ##
 
Last edited:

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