Show the sup axiom holds for ##\mathbb{Z}##,but not for ##\mathbb{Q}##

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Homework Statement



9. Show that the least upper bound axiom also holds in Z (i.e., each nonempty subset of Z with
upper bound in Z has a least upper bound in Z), but that it fails to hold in Q.

http://gyazo.com/4c0b79cbb1d15cd5edf0c96ec612a55c

Homework Equations



I'll split the question into 2 parts.

The Attempt at a Solution



(a). We want to show the sup axiom holds for ##\mathbb{Z}##.

Suppose ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}## is nonempty and bounded above.

Let ##M = max(A)## so that ##a ≤ M, \forall a \in A## so that M is an upper bound for A.

Now I have a quick question about this before I continue. I've shown that ##M## is an upper bound, but now I have to show that if ##U \in \mathbb{Z}## is any upper bound then ##M ≤ U##.

The question is how to go about this. Should I consider the set ##-A## or is there perhaps a more straightforward alternative.

(b) I'm guessing I should assume the contrary that the sup axiom holds for ##\mathbb{Q}## and then arrive at a contradiction?
 
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Zondrina said:

Homework Statement



9. Show that the least upper bound axiom also holds in Z (i.e., each nonempty subset of Z with
upper bound in Z has a least upper bound in Z), but that it fails to hold in Q.

http://gyazo.com/4c0b79cbb1d15cd5edf0c96ec612a55c

Homework Equations



I'll split the question into 2 parts.

The Attempt at a Solution



(a). We want to show the sup axiom holds for ##\mathbb{Z}##.

Suppose ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}## is nonempty and bounded above.

Let ##M = max(A)## so that ##a ≤ M, \forall a \in A## so that M is an upper bound for A.

Now I have a quick question about this before I continue. I've shown that ##M## is an upper bound, but now I have to show that if ##U \in \mathbb{Z}## is any upper bound then ##M ≤ U##.

The question is how to go about this. Should I consider the set ##-A## or is there perhaps a more straightforward alternative.

(b) I'm guessing I should assume the contrary that the sup axiom holds for ##\mathbb{Q}## and then arrive at a contradiction?

I'm not quite sure what you mean by max(A), don't you mean sup(A)? You know every bounded set has a sup in the real numbers. If the real number M=sup(A), what do you have to show about M?

For b) just give a counterexample.
 
Last edited:
Zondrina said:

Homework Statement



9. Show that the least upper bound axiom also holds in Z (i.e., each nonempty subset of Z with
upper bound in Z has a least upper bound in Z), but that it fails to hold in Q.

http://gyazo.com/4c0b79cbb1d15cd5edf0c96ec612a55c

Homework Equations



I'll split the question into 2 parts.

The Attempt at a Solution



(a). We want to show the sup axiom holds for ##\mathbb{Z}##.

Suppose ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}## is nonempty and bounded above.

Let ##M = max(A)## so that ##a ≤ M, \forall a \in A## so that M is an upper bound for A.

A is a potentially infinite set. How do you know it has a maximum element? (And your arguments would be easier to read if you would consistently use lower case letters for numbers and upper case letters for sets.)

Now I have a quick question about this before I continue. I've shown that ##M## is an upper bound, but now I have to show that if ##U \in \mathbb{Z}## is any upper bound then ##M ≤ U##.

The question is how to go about this. Should I consider the set ##-A## or is there perhaps a more straightforward alternative.

Why would you even consider -A? Just because it worked in a completely different problem? There is a very very simple argument that you should be able to see.
 
Last edited:
Dick said:
I'm not quite sure what you mean by max(A), don't you mean sup(A). You know every bounded set has a sup in the real numbers. If the real number M=sup(A), what do you have to show about M?

For b) just give a counterexample.

(a) Yes I meant sup(A), and I want to show that ##sup(A) = m## satisfies two things.

##m## is an upper bound and if ##u## is any upper bound then ##m ≤ u## ( Gonna use lower case letters ).

So suppose ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}## is nonempty and bounded above by ##u##.

We want to show sup(A) exists, so let ##m = sup(A)##. By the definition of the supremum, we know that m is an upper bound for the set A, that is ##a ≤ m, \space \forall a \in A## so that the first condition is met.

Since ##u## is an upper bound for A, we want ##m ≤ u##. I seem to be blanking on the second property for some reason.

(b) Hmm a counter example... take :

##B = \{ b \in \mathbb{Q} \space | \space b^2 ≤ 2 \} \subseteq \mathbb{Q}##

Then ##sup(B)## does not exist because ##\sqrt{2} \notin \mathbb{Q}##.
 
Zondrina said:
(a) Yes I meant sup(A), and I want to show that ##sup(A) = m## satisfies two things.

##m## is an upper bound and if ##u## is any upper bound then ##m ≤ u## ( Gonna use lower case letters ).

So suppose ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}## is nonempty and bounded above by ##u##.

We want to show sup(A) exists, so let ##m = sup(A)##. By the definition of the supremum, we know that m is an upper bound for the set A, that is ##a ≤ m, \space \forall a \in A## so that the first condition is met.

Since ##u## is an upper bound for A, we want ##m ≤ u##. I seem to be blanking on the second property for some reason.

(b) Hmm a counter example... take :

##B = \{ b \in \mathbb{Q} \space | \space b^2 ≤ 2 \} \subseteq \mathbb{Q}##

Then ##sup(B)## does not exist because ##\sqrt{2} \notin \mathbb{Q}##.

That's a fine example for (b) but for (a) you are trying to prove the wrong thing. You ALREADY KNOW A has a sup in R. That means m is a least upper bound. You don't have to prove that. You have to prove something else about m.
 
Dick said:
That's a fine example for (b) but for (a) you are trying to prove the wrong thing. You ALREADY KNOW A has a sup in R. That means m is a least upper bound. You don't have to prove that. You have to prove something else about m.

Okay so (b) is fine.

(a) Yes if A was a nonempty subset of R bounded above, then sup(A) = m exists since we already know the sup axiom works for R.

Hmm.. I have to prove something else about m knowing this. I'm thinking I have to show m is an integer.

I don't know why or if this is valid, but something is telling me to consider an ##ε > 0## so that ##m - ε < m## and we know that ##m - ε## is not an upper bound for A.
 
Zondrina said:
I'm thinking I have to show m is an integer.

Exactly.
 
micromass said:
Exactly.

Well then, let me give this a go.

(a). Suppose ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}## is non empty and bounded above.

We know that if we view ##A \subseteq ℝ##, it will have a supremum by the axiom, let's say ##sup(A) = m##.

Now let's go back to viewing ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}##. Since A is a set of integers, its supremum also has to be an integer, that is if ##m \notin \mathbb{Z}##, then it can't be the supremum of the set.

If ##m \in \mathbb{Z}## then we're done.

How do I force ##m## to be an integer. I understand what's going on around it, but do I have to be particular about it?
 
Zondrina said:
Well then, let me give this a go.

(a). Suppose ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}## is non empty and bounded above.

We know that if we view ##A \subseteq ℝ##, it will have a supremum by the axiom, let's say ##sup(A) = m##.

Now let's go back to viewing ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}##. Since A is a set of integers, its supremum also has to be an integer, that is if ##m \notin \mathbb{Z}##, then it can't be the supremum of the set.

If ##m \in \mathbb{Z}## then we're done.

How do I force ##m## to be an integer. I understand what's going on around it, but do I have to be particular about it?

Suppose m is not an integer. What then?
 
  • #10
Hint: if ##m## is not an integer, prove that there is a greatest integer that is smaller than ##m##.
 
  • #11
micromass said:
Hint: if ##m## is not an integer, prove that there is a greatest integer that is smaller than ##m##.

Okay.

(a). Suppose ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}## is non empty and bounded above.

We know that if we view ##A \subseteq ℝ##, it will have a supremum by the axiom, let's say ##sup(A)=m## so that m is an upper bound for A.

I claim that since A is a set of integers, even if we view A as a subset of ℝ, m will be an integer.

Suppose that ##m \notin \mathbb{Z}##. We want to show there is a greatest integer ##n \in \mathbb{Z} \space | \space n ≤ m##.

Notice that we can find the next greatest integer by taking ##n = n+1## and using this construction, there will always be a next greatest integer. Hence there will always be another upper bound we can find, which means that with enough applications of our construction, we can show that m is not an upper bound for A. This is a contradiction because we said earlier that m IS an upper bound for A.

Hence ##m \in \mathbb{Z}## and therefore the sup axiom holds for ##\mathbb{Z}##.

(Hopefully this is somewhat correct, it took me awhile to formulate this for some reason).
 
  • #12
Zondrina said:
Okay.

(a). Suppose ##A \subseteq \mathbb{Z}## is non empty and bounded above.

We know that if we view ##A \subseteq ℝ##, it will have a supremum by the axiom, let's say ##sup(A)=m## so that m is an upper bound for A.

I claim that since A is a set of integers, even if we view A as a subset of ℝ, m will be an integer.

Suppose that ##m \notin \mathbb{Z}##. We want to show there is a greatest integer ##n \in \mathbb{Z} \space | \space n ≤ m##.

Notice that we can find the next greatest integer by taking ##n = n+1## and using this construction, there will always be a next greatest integer. Hence there will always be another upper bound we can find, which means that with enough applications of our construction, we can show that m is not an upper bound for A. This is a contradiction because we said earlier that m IS an upper bound for A.

Hence ##m \in \mathbb{Z}## and therefore the sup axiom holds for ##\mathbb{Z}##.

(Hopefully this is somewhat correct, it took me awhile to formulate this for some reason).

It must take a while to formulate something like that when the correct line of reasoning is so much simpler. Does that actually sound correct to you?! Draw a picture or something and think about the problem again, ok?
 
  • #13
Dick said:
It must take a while to formulate something like that when the correct line of reasoning is so much simpler. Does that actually sound correct to you?! Draw a picture or something and think about the problem again, ok?

I know it's not correct, those were some ideas I had floating around. Something seems to not be clicking like it usually does ( Head feels groggy and clouded ).

Perhaps I'll go for a walk in the fresh air to clear my head. Then I'll come back, draw my picture and see what I can do.
 
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