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## Homework Statement

Hey guys!

So this question should be simple apparently but I got no idea how to do it. Basically I have the following Lagrangian density

[itex]\mathcal{L}=\frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\phi)(\partial^{\mu}\phi)-\frac{m}{2}\phi^{2}[/itex]

which should be invariant under Lorentz transformations - that is:

[itex]\phi^{'}(x^{'})=\phi(x)[/itex]

And so I have to show that under this transformation, the lagrangian density above is Lorentz invariant.

No idea where to start guys so please help me :D thanks!