Xezlec
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So I have this book that considers the problem of a flexible vibrating string, taking \phi(x,t) as the string's displacement from equilibrium. It then writes a Lagrangian density in terms of this \phi, takes \delta \mathcal{S} = 0, and eventually concludes that \frac{\partial}{\partial t}(\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{\phi}}) + \frac{\partial}{\partial x}(\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi'}) = 0. Notice that the time-varying and space-varying terms have the same sign.
Two pages later, it considers a scalar field \phi(x^0,\mathbf{x}) with a Lagrangian density \mathcal{L}=\mathcal{L}(\phi,\partial_\mu\phi), and concludes that \frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial\phi}-\partial_\mu(\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_\mu\phi)})=0. Now, unless I am having some massive brain fart on how covariant and contravariant work, the time-varying and space-varying terms have opposite signs. Right?
What gives? Why are the signs different between these two situations?
Two pages later, it considers a scalar field \phi(x^0,\mathbf{x}) with a Lagrangian density \mathcal{L}=\mathcal{L}(\phi,\partial_\mu\phi), and concludes that \frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial\phi}-\partial_\mu(\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_\mu\phi)})=0. Now, unless I am having some massive brain fart on how covariant and contravariant work, the time-varying and space-varying terms have opposite signs. Right?
What gives? Why are the signs different between these two situations?