Simple electronic configuration question.

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SUMMARY

The electronic configuration of Fluorine is represented as 1s2 2s2 2px2 2py2 2pz1 due to the principles of electron distribution and Hund's rule. While the 2p orbitals (x, y, z) are indeed degenerate, the configuration reflects the most stable arrangement of electrons, minimizing repulsion. This notation is widely accepted in chemistry literature and educational resources, emphasizing the importance of following established conventions in electron configuration.

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  • Familiarity with electron configuration notation
  • Knowledge of Hund's rule and the Pauli exclusion principle
  • Basic concepts of atomic structure and orbitals
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cantgetaname
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Why is something like Fluorine written as [tex]1s^{2}\;\;2s^{2}\;\;2p_{x}^{2}\;\;2p_{y}^{2}\;\;2p_{z}^{1}[/tex] and not [tex]1s^{2}\;\;2s^{2}\;\;2p_{x}^{2}\;\;2p_{y}^{1}\;\;2p_{z}^{2}[/tex]?

[tex]2p_{y}^{1}[/tex] and [tex]2p_{z}^{1}[/tex] should be of the same energy, right?

Or is it only a matter of convenience/convention which one we write?
 
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Where do you see fluorine written this way. I always thought the various suborbitals (x,y,z) of the p orbitals were degenerate so any way you write it would be OK but why would you choose one over the others? I've never seen it written this way.
 

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