Sin [Pi. (x-1)] / x-1; for x =1,2,3, .N

  • Thread starter Thread starter pjunky
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Pi Sin
pjunky
Messages
22
Reaction score
0
Sin [Pi. (x-1)] / x-1; for x =1,2,3,...N

Sin [ Pi. (x-1) ] / (x-1) = ?

for x=1,2,3,4,...N

I think for Sin (x) / x =1

but, what about that.
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org


For x > 1 it is rather obvious, you can just plug in the value.
For x = 1 you are dividing by 0, so it is undefined. You can however take the limit, as you are indicating.
 


CompuChip said:
For x > 1 it is rather obvious, you can just plug in the value.
For x = 1 you are dividing by 0, so it is undefined. You can however take the limit, as you are indicating.

for all X values will I get '0'
 


I am assuming you mean: for all X values which are integer and at least 2. Then you are right. sin(n pi) = 0 for all integers n, and since you are dividing by something non-zero for n non-zero, you have sin(n pi)/n = 0/something = 0.

For n = 1, you get sin((n - 1) pi) / (n - 1) which looks like 0/0 if you plug in the numbers.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
I'm interested to know whether the equation $$1 = 2 - \frac{1}{2 - \frac{1}{2 - \cdots}}$$ is true or not. It can be shown easily that if the continued fraction converges, it cannot converge to anything else than 1. It seems that if the continued fraction converges, the convergence is very slow. The apparent slowness of the convergence makes it difficult to estimate the presence of true convergence numerically. At the moment I don't know whether this converges or not.

Similar threads

Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
991
Back
Top