Smaller particles between the air molecules?

theriddler876
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can you really have nothing, for example you have two balls one meter appart, you can say that there is nothing between them, however there are air molecules between them right, well couln't there be other smaller particles between the air molecules? and then smaller particles between those, in such a fashion that could go on forever, so how can nothing exsist?
 
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There are many 'virtual' particles popping in and out of existence, as allowed by the Uncertainty Principal, in any 'empty' space. So no, you can't have 'nothing'.
 
There exist weak electromagnetic and other fields between the molecules, but usually no other particles.
 
When you think of something that is matter, you can use induction to imply it is infinite. Meaning, that is has not end, it is infinitely divisible, which is to only say it exists really. You cannot think about it, if it is not sensed, therefore all things sensed direct or indirectly exist to some probability of accuracy.

Space is only understood in light of things that do exist. Nothing, therefore, is always something. It's just a bit imaginately smaller than most things.
 
Actually YOU can have nothing. Physics on the other hand sticks to what it can test and thus doesn't allow it. I think that kind of ignorant thought is what's kept us, and is still keeping us, from finding the U.F.T.
 
Toponium is a hadron which is the bound state of a valance top quark and a valance antitop quark. Oversimplified presentations often state that top quarks don't form hadrons, because they decay to bottom quarks extremely rapidly after they are created, leaving no time to form a hadron. And, the vast majority of the time, this is true. But, the lifetime of a top quark is only an average lifetime. Sometimes it decays faster and sometimes it decays slower. In the highly improbable case that...
I'm following this paper by Kitaev on SL(2,R) representations and I'm having a problem in the normalization of the continuous eigenfunctions (eqs. (67)-(70)), which satisfy \langle f_s | f_{s'} \rangle = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{2}{(1-u)^2} f_s(u)^* f_{s'}(u) \, du. \tag{67} The singular contribution of the integral arises at the endpoint u=1 of the integral, and in the limit u \to 1, the function f_s(u) takes on the form f_s(u) \approx a_s (1-u)^{1/2 + i s} + a_s^* (1-u)^{1/2 - i s}. \tag{70}...
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