Apteronotus
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Hi
I'm getting confused solving the Laplace eqn in Cartesian coordinates.
The equation can be solved by solving each of
[itex] \frac{X''(x)}{X(x)}=-k_x^2, \qquad\qquad<br /> \frac{Y''(y)}{Y(y)}=-k_y^2, \qquad\qquad<br /> \frac{Z''(z)}{Z(z)}=k_z^2[/itex]
and then substituting into the equation
[itex] \Phi(\vec{x})=X(x)Y(y)Z(z)[/itex]
The solution to the (general) ODE's is
[itex] X(x)=A_1e^{ik_xx}+A_2e^{-ik_xx}, \qquad\qquad<br /> Y(y)=B_1e^{ik_yy}+B_2e^{-ik_yy}, \qquad\qquad<br /> Z(z)=C_1e^{k_zz}+C_2e^{k_zz}[/itex]
But the solution when solving for the electric potential is given by
[itex] \Phi_{k_x,k_y,\pm}(\vec{x})=exp\left(ik_xx+ik_yy \pm\sqrt{k_x^2+k_y^2}\right)[/itex]
Where am I going wrong?
Why have they let the coefficients [itex]A_{1,2}, B_{1,2}, C_{1,2}=1[/itex]?
Thanks
I'm getting confused solving the Laplace eqn in Cartesian coordinates.
The equation can be solved by solving each of
[itex] \frac{X''(x)}{X(x)}=-k_x^2, \qquad\qquad<br /> \frac{Y''(y)}{Y(y)}=-k_y^2, \qquad\qquad<br /> \frac{Z''(z)}{Z(z)}=k_z^2[/itex]
and then substituting into the equation
[itex] \Phi(\vec{x})=X(x)Y(y)Z(z)[/itex]
The solution to the (general) ODE's is
[itex] X(x)=A_1e^{ik_xx}+A_2e^{-ik_xx}, \qquad\qquad<br /> Y(y)=B_1e^{ik_yy}+B_2e^{-ik_yy}, \qquad\qquad<br /> Z(z)=C_1e^{k_zz}+C_2e^{k_zz}[/itex]
But the solution when solving for the electric potential is given by
[itex] \Phi_{k_x,k_y,\pm}(\vec{x})=exp\left(ik_xx+ik_yy \pm\sqrt{k_x^2+k_y^2}\right)[/itex]
Where am I going wrong?
Why have they let the coefficients [itex]A_{1,2}, B_{1,2}, C_{1,2}=1[/itex]?
Thanks
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