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Suppose I showed that a function f(z,t) of which I do not know the form explicitely satisfies the following pde:
\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}=-\frac{1}{v}\frac{\partial f}{\partial t}
While it is certain that functions of the type g(z-vt) are solutions to the pde, does it mean that my f(z,t) is of this form necessarily?
\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}=-\frac{1}{v}\frac{\partial f}{\partial t}
While it is certain that functions of the type g(z-vt) are solutions to the pde, does it mean that my f(z,t) is of this form necessarily?