The0wn4g3
- 11
- 0
I need help solving the rest of an example problem in my book, please.
Solve y'' + (cos[x])y = 0
[tex]y = \sum_{n=0}^\infty c_{n} x^{n}[/tex]
[tex]y' = \sum_{n=1}^\infty c_{n-1}x^{n-1}[/tex]
[tex]y'' = \sum_{n=0}^\infty n(n-1)c_{n} x^{n-2}[/tex]
[tex]y'' + (cos(x))y = \sum_{n=0}^\infty n(n-1)c_n x^{n-2} + (1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{6!} + ...)\sum_{n=0}^\infty c_n x^n[/tex]
[tex]= 2c_{2}+6c_{3}x+12c_{4}x^{2}+20c_{5}x^{3} + ... = (1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} + ...)(c_{0}+c_{1}x+c_{2}x^{2}+c_{3}x^{3}+...)[/tex]
[tex]= 2c_{2}+c_{0}+(6c_{3}+c_{1})x + (12c_{4}+c_{2}- \frac{1}{2} c_{0})x^{2} + (20c_{5}+c_{3}- \frac{1}{2} c_{1})x^{3} + ... = 0[/tex]
It follows that
[tex]2c_{2} + c_{0} = 0[/tex]
[tex]6c_{3} + c_{1} = 0[/tex]
[tex]12c_{4} + c_{2} - \frac{1}{2} c_{0} = 0[/tex]
[tex]20c_{5} _ c_{3} - \frac{1}{2} c_{0} = 0[/tex]
and so on. this gives [itex]c_{2} = -\frac{1}{2}c_{0}, c_{3} = -\frac{1}{6}c_{1}, c_{4} = \frac{1}{12}c_{0}, c_{5} = \frac{1}{30}c_{1}, ...[/itex] By grouping terms we arrive at the general solution [itex]y = c_{0}y_{1}(x) + c_{1}y_{2}(x)[/itex], where
[tex]y_{1} = 1 - \frac {1}{2}x^{2} + \frac{1}{12}x^{4} - ...[/tex] and [tex]y_{2}(x) = x - \frac {1}{6}x^{3} + \frac{1}{30}x^{5}...[/tex]
Ok, I'm not exactly sure how to present this question as I'm not quite sure I know what I don't udnerstand... I believe I understand how they are factoring the like terms ([itex]x, x^{2},x^{3}[/itex] etc.) up to the point where they are [itex]- \frac{1}{2}c_{0}[/itex] how are they multiplying the Maclaurin series [itex]cos(x)[/itex] term by the y series?
Can anyone this to me please?
PS: First time using latex, I'm sorry if I messed anything up...
PS again: In y' and y'' that's is suppose to be [itex]x^{n-1}[/itex] and [itex]x^{n-2}[/itex] respectively. It seems I can't fix it for some reason.
Homework Statement
Solve y'' + (cos[x])y = 0
Homework Equations
[tex]y = \sum_{n=0}^\infty c_{n} x^{n}[/tex]
[tex]y' = \sum_{n=1}^\infty c_{n-1}x^{n-1}[/tex]
[tex]y'' = \sum_{n=0}^\infty n(n-1)c_{n} x^{n-2}[/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
[tex]y'' + (cos(x))y = \sum_{n=0}^\infty n(n-1)c_n x^{n-2} + (1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{6!} + ...)\sum_{n=0}^\infty c_n x^n[/tex]
[tex]= 2c_{2}+6c_{3}x+12c_{4}x^{2}+20c_{5}x^{3} + ... = (1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} + ...)(c_{0}+c_{1}x+c_{2}x^{2}+c_{3}x^{3}+...)[/tex]
[tex]= 2c_{2}+c_{0}+(6c_{3}+c_{1})x + (12c_{4}+c_{2}- \frac{1}{2} c_{0})x^{2} + (20c_{5}+c_{3}- \frac{1}{2} c_{1})x^{3} + ... = 0[/tex]
It follows that
[tex]2c_{2} + c_{0} = 0[/tex]
[tex]6c_{3} + c_{1} = 0[/tex]
[tex]12c_{4} + c_{2} - \frac{1}{2} c_{0} = 0[/tex]
[tex]20c_{5} _ c_{3} - \frac{1}{2} c_{0} = 0[/tex]
and so on. this gives [itex]c_{2} = -\frac{1}{2}c_{0}, c_{3} = -\frac{1}{6}c_{1}, c_{4} = \frac{1}{12}c_{0}, c_{5} = \frac{1}{30}c_{1}, ...[/itex] By grouping terms we arrive at the general solution [itex]y = c_{0}y_{1}(x) + c_{1}y_{2}(x)[/itex], where
[tex]y_{1} = 1 - \frac {1}{2}x^{2} + \frac{1}{12}x^{4} - ...[/tex] and [tex]y_{2}(x) = x - \frac {1}{6}x^{3} + \frac{1}{30}x^{5}...[/tex]
Ok, I'm not exactly sure how to present this question as I'm not quite sure I know what I don't udnerstand... I believe I understand how they are factoring the like terms ([itex]x, x^{2},x^{3}[/itex] etc.) up to the point where they are [itex]- \frac{1}{2}c_{0}[/itex] how are they multiplying the Maclaurin series [itex]cos(x)[/itex] term by the y series?
Can anyone this to me please?
PS: First time using latex, I'm sorry if I messed anything up...
PS again: In y' and y'' that's is suppose to be [itex]x^{n-1}[/itex] and [itex]x^{n-2}[/itex] respectively. It seems I can't fix it for some reason.
Last edited: