Solving Hard Fourier Series: Let f = e^(cos(x^2)) for 0 < x < 2pi

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The problem involves the function f(x) = e^(cos(x^2)) defined on the interval (0, 2π) and its Fourier series representation. The original poster seeks to determine the value of the Fourier series at x = 4π.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the periodicity of the function and its implications for the Fourier series. Some question whether the function is truly periodic, while others suggest treating it as such for the purpose of the series. There are mentions of convergence theorems and pointwise convergence, as well as considerations of how to handle discontinuities in the Fourier series.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various interpretations of the problem, with some participants suggesting that the Fourier series should converge to the average of the function values at certain points. There is no explicit consensus, but several lines of reasoning have been explored regarding the periodic extension of the function and its behavior at discontinuities.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the function is not periodic in its original form, but they consider the implications of extending it periodically over the interval [0, 2π). There are references to the Gibbs phenomenon and the behavior of Fourier series at discontinuities.

saxen
Messages
44
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Let f be the 2pi periodic function defined by f(x)=e[itex]^{cos(x^{2})}[/itex]
for 0 < x < 2pi. What is the value of the Fourier series at x=4pi

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I don't even know where to start.

All help is much appreciated!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
well it should be equivalent to the value of the function (can you think of any useful convergence theorems?), that is unless the function is misbehaving at that point...
 
I'm pretty sure that f(x)=e^cos(x2) isn't a periodic function, but let's pretend that it is. If you want to generate the Fourier series for the interval 0<x<2π, then the series is going to loop itself every 2π. In other words, for the series, f(x)=f(x+2π). Therefore, f(0)=f(4π) (for the series only!). That means the only value there is to check is f(0), which equals e.
 
lanedance said:
well it should be equivalent to the value of the function (can you think of any useful convergence theorems?), that is unless the function is misbehaving at that point...

Hmm, maybe something about pointwise convergence?
 
Harrisonized said:
I'm pretty sure that f(x)=e^cos(x2) isn't a periodic function, but let's pretend that it is. If you want to generate the Fourier series for the interval 0<x<2π, then the series is going to loop itself every 2π. In other words, for the series, f(x)=f(x+2π). Therefore, f(0)=f(4π) (for the series only!). That means the only value there is to check is f(0), which equals e.

Can't I also think like this:

f(4pi)=f(2pi + 2pi)=f(2pi)
 
Ok, the answer to this problem is

(1/2)*(e^cos(4pi^2)+e)

I am so confused. I offer beer and hugs in return for explinations.
 
I'm confused too, but no matter. From the looks of it, the way they wanted you to make the Fourier series depended on both endpoints. Therefore, the "answer" (if it can be called that) is the average of f(0) and f(2π). *shrugs*
 
lanedance said:
so the function isn't period, but we take the periodic extension of the portion on [0,2pi)

and at a discontinuity Fourier series will converge to the average of the endpoints as you have found
http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/DE/ConvergenceFourierSeries.aspx

note that even though the series converges to the average of the endpoints, it will still have an "overshoot" at any discontinuity regardless of how many terms you take in the series.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gibbs_phenomenon

Thanks a lot, I understand now! Its very logical when you think of it. You can claim your reward anytime.
 
  • #10
The value of the Fourier series at [itex[x = 4 \pi[/itex] is the same as the value at [itex]2 \pi[/itex] as well as [itex]0[/itex]. If we perform the Fourier series expansion of a function that has a finite jump at some point [itex]x = a[/itex], then it will have the value:
[tex] \frac{f(a - 0) + f(a + 0)}{2}[/tex]
In your case:
[tex] [tex]\frac{f(2\pi - 0) + f(+0)}{2}[/tex]<br /> Calculate this limit.[/tex]
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K