Solving Integral with 2 Answers: Substituting x for sin/cos theta - Help Needed

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Homework Statement



[itex]\int \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}} dx[/itex]

I seem to be getting two incompatible answers when I substitute x with [itex]sin \theta[/itex] and [itex]cos \theta[/itex]. Could someone please help me with where I'm going wrong.

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



first attempt (the correct answer I believe):

[itex]let\ x = sin \theta[/itex]

[itex]dx = cos \theta\ d\theta[/itex]

[itex]\int \frac{cos \theta}{\sqrt{1-sin^{2}\theta}} d\theta[/itex]

[itex]= \int \frac{cos \theta}{\sqrt{cos^{2}\theta}} d\theta[/itex]

[itex]= \int \frac{cos \theta}{{cos\theta}} d\theta[/itex]

[itex]= \int 1\ d\theta[/itex]

[itex]= \theta[/itex]

[itex]x = sin \theta[/itex]

[itex]\theta = arcsin x[/itex]


second attempt (the wrong answer I believe)

[itex]let\ x = cos \theta[/itex]

[itex]dx = -sin \theta\ d\theta[/itex]

[itex]\int \frac{-sin \theta}{\sqrt{1-cos^{2}\theta}} d\theta[/itex]

[itex]= \int \frac{-sin \theta}{\sqrt{sin^{2}\theta}} d\theta[/itex]

[itex]= \int \frac{-sin \theta}{{sin\theta}} d\theta[/itex]

[itex]= \int -1\ d\theta[/itex]

[itex]= -\theta[/itex]

[itex]x = cos \theta[/itex]

[itex]\theta = -arccos x[/itex]
 
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Its simple...we know that d/dx arc sinx = (1-x^2)^-1/2
d/dx arc cos x = -(1-x^2)^-1/2 (notice the minus sign)
as integral is antiderivative of a function you are getting the same values
yes integral arc sinx=(minus)integral arc cos x..Hope your doubt is clarified
 
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In fact [itex]\int \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dx=\sin^{-1}{x}+C_1 \ and \ \int \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dx=-\cos^{-1}{x}+C_2[/itex]
If you take a look at the plots of the functions [itex]\sin^{-1}{x}[/itex] and [itex]\cos^{-1}{x}[/itex],you can see that you can get one of them by multiplying the other by a minus sign and then adding a constant(or vice versa!)...and you can see that you have the negative sign and also the constant in the results of the integral!
 
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Thanks for clearing that up for me.
 
No one has mentioned this. There's a trig identity that can shed some light here.

##sin^{-1}(x) + cos^{-1}(x) = \pi/2##
The two functions differ by a constant. If an indefinite integral produces two different antiderivatives, those functions can differ by at most a constant.
 
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