Solving Integration Problem: I = \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \sin{bx} dx

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the improper integral I = ∫₀^∞ e^(-ax) sin(bx) dx, which involves techniques from calculus, specifically integration methods.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore integration by parts as a potential method, with some expressing concern that it leads to similar integrals requiring further resolution. Others suggest using complex exponentials to simplify the sine function, raising questions about the necessity of substitutions in the integration process.

Discussion Status

The conversation includes various perspectives on the integration techniques, with some participants providing hints and others questioning the approaches suggested. There is no explicit consensus on the best method, but multiple interpretations and strategies are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express confusion regarding the use of substitutions in integration by parts, indicating a potential gap in understanding the method's application. The discussion reflects a range of familiarity with integration techniques.

Logarythmic
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Can someone give me a hint on how to solve

[tex]I = \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \sin{bx} dx[/tex]

?
 
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Use integration by parts, and set the upper limit as t. Then let t--> infinity (i.e. improper integral)
 
Last edited:
But integration by parts will only give me a similar integral to solve...?
 
you have to use it multiple times, so that you can solve the integral
 
You can write the trig function as a complex exponential:

[tex] \sin(bx) = \frac{1}{2i}\left[e^{ibx}-e^{-ibx}\right]\,.[/tex]

Then you will have two similar integrals to solve, which are straight forward.
 
jprO: Of course. That will do it.

courtrigad: Partial integration multiple times will give me a loop between [tex]e^{-ax} \sin{bx}[/tex] and [tex]e^{-ax} \cos{bx}[/tex].
 
Yes, it does:
[tex]I = \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \sin{bx} dx[/tex]
Let [itex]u= e^{-ax}[/itex], [itex]dv= sin(bx)dx[/itex]
Then [itex]du= -ae^{-ax}dx[/itex], [itex]v= -\frac{1}{b}cos(bx)[/itex]
so the integral becomes
[tex]I= -\frac{1}{b}e^{-ax}cos(bx)\left|_0^\inftjy- \frac{a}{b}\int_0^\inty}e^{-ax}cos(bx)dx[/tex]
Since e-ax goes to 0 as x goes to infinity, while cos(bx) is bounded, that is
[tex]I= \frac{1}{b}- \frac{a}{b}\int_0^\inty}e^{-ax}cos(bx)dx[/tex]
Now let [itex]u= e^{-ax}[/itex], [itex]dv= cos(bx)[/itex]. Again we have [itex]du= -a e^{-ax}dx[/itex], [itex]v= \frac{1}{b}sin(bx)[/tex]<br /> The integral is now:<br /> [tex]I= \frac{1}{b}- \frac{a^2}{b^2}\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx[/tex]<br /> But remember that [itex]I= \int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx[/itex]<br /> so that equation says<br /> [itex]\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx= \frac{1}{b}- \frac{a^2}{b^2}\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx[/tex]<br /> so <br /> [tex]\left(1+frac{a^2}{b^2}\right)\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx= \frac{1}{b}[/tex]<br /> [tex]\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx= \frac{b}{a^2+b^2}[/tex]<br /> (Modulo any silly litte errors from working too fast!)[/itex][/itex]
 
I don't understand why you do the substitutions. Can't you just solve the integral by parts without doing the substitutions?
 
do you agree that integration by parts if of the form:

[tex]\int udv = uv-\int vdu[/tex]? You need substitutions to do integration by parts.
 
Last edited:
  • #10
I see what you mean. I'm just not used to do it your way. Actually, I'm doing it your way. I just don't think about what I'm really doing. ;)
 

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