- #51

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Thinking people would want to know why light's one-way speed

is Lorentz invariant.

[Tom Mattson noted:]

You can think about it all you want, the question has no known

answer. And as has been noted, even if we did have the answer,

that explanation would have some unexplained phenomenon behind it.

... Einstein did not have the power to force the speed of light

to be absolute, "by definition", or any other means. The speed of

light is a Lorentz scalar because that's what it is measured to be.

[2clockdude replies:]

You need to read Einstein's 1905 SR paper before trying to

comment on his "theory."

Here are his own words (which you are probably now reading for

the very first time):

"2. Any ray of light moves in the "stationary" system

of coordinates with the determined velocity c, whether

the ray be emitted by a stationary or by a moving body.

Hence

velocity = light path/time interval

where time interval is to be taken in the sense of the

definition in Section 1."

Did you see the word "definition"?

If you will read Einstein's definition, then you will see that it

merely forces one-way invariance. (John Wheeler's book, Spacetime

Physics_, gives a good description of how clocks are forced to

obtain Einstein's baselessly chosen one-way invariance; I highly

recommend that you add that to your required reading list.)

I haven't got time to educate every Tom, Dick, and Harry about SR.

[Tom Mattson noted:]

... Whether you measure the speed of light one-way or two-way, you

get the same result, namely that the speed of light is a Lorentz

invariant.

[2clockdude replies:]

News Flashes to Tom:

You cannot measure light's one-way speed without two clocks, and

you cannot use two clocks to measure any speed unless they have

been correctly synchronized. Tell us how to correctly synchronize

two clocks.

As of today, no one has ever used two clocks to measure light's

one-way speed, so your above one-way claim is as bogus as the

day is long.