randyu
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"bgq
Posts: 59
YES!
I think I got it!
Let t1 be the time from E to F, and t2 from F to E as measured by A.
According to Lorentz transformation:
t1 = γ(T0/2 + vL0/c2)
t2 = γ(T0/2 - vL0/c2)
d = (L0/γ + vt1) + (L0/γ - vt2)
= 2L0/γ + v(t2 - t2)
= 2L0/γ + v(2γvL0/c2)
= 2L0/γ + 2γL0v2/c2
= 2L0(1/γ + γv2/c2)
so then solving, d = gamma * 2Lo, not divided by gamma as orginally posted,
this confuses me, any explanations would be helpful, thanks
Posts: 59
YES!
I think I got it!
Let t1 be the time from E to F, and t2 from F to E as measured by A.
According to Lorentz transformation:
t1 = γ(T0/2 + vL0/c2)
t2 = γ(T0/2 - vL0/c2)
d = (L0/γ + vt1) + (L0/γ - vt2)
= 2L0/γ + v(t2 - t2)
= 2L0/γ + v(2γvL0/c2)
= 2L0/γ + 2γL0v2/c2
= 2L0(1/γ + γv2/c2)
so then solving, d = gamma * 2Lo, not divided by gamma as orginally posted,
this confuses me, any explanations would be helpful, thanks
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