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I have a question, something that is confusing me.

If a particle of spin 1 is measured to have m=1 along the x direction, would the spinor state just be a column vector with (1,0,0), which would also be the spinor if x was infact z. OR would the spinor be determined by multiplying the Sx matrix by a column vector of (a,b,c,d) and letting this equal the eigenvalue (hbar in this case) muliplied by column vector (a,b,c,d) and working out their values and normalising.?

Thanks!

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# Spin 1 particle, spinor state

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