Squaring an Integral: Deriving ∫e-x2 = √(π/4) | Physics Forums

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the evaluation of the integral I = ∫₀∞ e^(-x²) and its relationship to the expression I². Participants are exploring the derivation of the result I = √(π/4) by examining the properties of double integrals and the application of Fubini's theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the correctness of the initial formulation of I² and discussing the implications of using different variables in double integrals. There is an exploration of how to properly set up the double integral and the reasoning behind introducing a function dependent on x as f(x,y).

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing feedback on each other's attempts and clarifying concepts related to the setup of the integrals. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of independent variables in the context of double integrals, but no consensus has been reached on the derivation process itself.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of confusion regarding the application of Fubini's theorem and the treatment of variables in the context of the integrals, which may affect the participants' understanding of the problem setup.

weeksy
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Homework Statement



Well iv been looking around for a similar problem and found the use of the following equation. what I would like to know is if the following equation is actually correct? I believe it may be a extension of the Fubini's theorem but can't find a reference or derivation on the net. any help would be great thanks

I=∫0 e-x2
Show I=sqrt(pi/4) by first evaluating I^2

Homework Equations



[∫f(x) dx]^2 = ∫∫f(x)f(y) dxdy ?

link- https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=243670

The Attempt at a Solution



I2=∫∫e-2x2dxdy?
 
Last edited:
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I2=∫∫exp(-2x2)dxdy is incorrect, where is y except in its differential?
 
When you multiply two integrals together, their arguments are different (even though initially you use same letter for both): use x for one and y for the other.
 
ok so we would have I^2 = ∫∫e-x^2.y^2 dxdy

i would love to know where this rule comes from, seems very weird that we can just introduce a function dependent only on x as f(x,y).
and how do we know which order the dxdy goes?
 
weeksy said:
i would love to know where this rule comes from, seems very weird that we can just introduce a function dependent only on x as f(x,y).
and how do we know which order the dxdy goes?

You have number I that happens to be an integral of some f(x). You might as well look at it as the integral of f(y). You can multiply those, and you can treat them as a double integral - in any order - because their variables are independent.
 
weeksy said:
ok so we would have I^2 = ∫∫e-x^2.y^2 dxdy

i would love to know where this rule comes from, seems very weird that we can just introduce a function dependent only on x as f(x,y).
and how do we know which order the dxdy goes?

You're misunderstanding something here...

[tex]I^2 = \int e^{-x^2} dx \int e^{-y^2} dy = \int e^{-x^2 - y^2} dx dy[/tex]

This is basically a special case of Fubini where f(x,y) = g(x) h(y), if that helps your thinking.
 

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