LAHLH
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Hi,
I was wondering if anyone could explain how Srednicki gets to his eqn 26.7:
\tilde{dk_1}\tilde{dk_2} \sim (\omega^{d-3}_{1}d\omega_1) (\omega^{d-3}_{2}d\omega_2)(sin^{d-3}\theta d\theta)
I thought this would be to do with transforming into some kind of d-dimensional polar coords so I start as:
\tilde{dk_1}\tilde{dk_2}=\frac{d^{d-1}k_1}{(2\pi)^{d-1}2\omega_{1}}\frac{d^{d-1}k_2}{(2\pi)^{d-1}2\omega_{2}}=\frac{\vec{k_1}^{d-2}d\vec{k_1}d\Omega_{d-2}\vec{k_2}^{d-2}d\vec{k_2}d\Omega_{d-2}}{(2\pi)^{d-1}2\omega_{1}(2\pi)^{d-1}2\omega_{2} }
Now since he's working in the massless limit \omega_{1,2}=\vec{k}_{1,2}
\tilde{dk_1}\tilde{dk_2}=\frac{\omega^{d-3}_{1}d\omega_{1}d\Omega_{d-2}\omega^{d-3}_{2}d\omega_{2}\Omega_{d-2}}{4(2\pi)^{d-1}(2\pi)^{d-1} }
\tilde{dk_1}\tilde{dk_2}=(\omega^{d-3}_{1}d\omega_{1})(\omega^{d-3}_{2}d\omega_{2}) \frac{d\Omega_{d-2}d\Omega_{d-2}}{4(2\pi)^{d-1}(2\pi)^{d-1}}
Which looks quite similar to what he has, but not there yet. I'm guessing that the solid angle must go something like
d\Omega_{d-2}=sin^{d-3}d\theta \times d\phi_{1}d\phi_{2}...
Which probably cancels out a few \pi's but then why doesn't he have two lot's of the sin term?
Thanks for any help on this
I was wondering if anyone could explain how Srednicki gets to his eqn 26.7:
\tilde{dk_1}\tilde{dk_2} \sim (\omega^{d-3}_{1}d\omega_1) (\omega^{d-3}_{2}d\omega_2)(sin^{d-3}\theta d\theta)
I thought this would be to do with transforming into some kind of d-dimensional polar coords so I start as:
\tilde{dk_1}\tilde{dk_2}=\frac{d^{d-1}k_1}{(2\pi)^{d-1}2\omega_{1}}\frac{d^{d-1}k_2}{(2\pi)^{d-1}2\omega_{2}}=\frac{\vec{k_1}^{d-2}d\vec{k_1}d\Omega_{d-2}\vec{k_2}^{d-2}d\vec{k_2}d\Omega_{d-2}}{(2\pi)^{d-1}2\omega_{1}(2\pi)^{d-1}2\omega_{2} }
Now since he's working in the massless limit \omega_{1,2}=\vec{k}_{1,2}
\tilde{dk_1}\tilde{dk_2}=\frac{\omega^{d-3}_{1}d\omega_{1}d\Omega_{d-2}\omega^{d-3}_{2}d\omega_{2}\Omega_{d-2}}{4(2\pi)^{d-1}(2\pi)^{d-1} }
\tilde{dk_1}\tilde{dk_2}=(\omega^{d-3}_{1}d\omega_{1})(\omega^{d-3}_{2}d\omega_{2}) \frac{d\Omega_{d-2}d\Omega_{d-2}}{4(2\pi)^{d-1}(2\pi)^{d-1}}
Which looks quite similar to what he has, but not there yet. I'm guessing that the solid angle must go something like
d\Omega_{d-2}=sin^{d-3}d\theta \times d\phi_{1}d\phi_{2}...
Which probably cancels out a few \pi's but then why doesn't he have two lot's of the sin term?
Thanks for any help on this