Sturm-Liouville Equation. Question about different forms.

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I have noticed the following 2 different forms for the Sturm-Liouville equation online, in different texts, and in lectures.

[p(x) y']'+q(x)y+\lambda r(x) y = 0

-[p(x) y']'+q(x)y+\lambda r(x) y = 0

Does it make a difference? I am guessing not as the negative can just be absorbed into function p(x)?

But I am still scratching my head as to why some texts use the negative sign in front of the 1st term. Is there some advantage to doing so?

Thanks in advance.
 
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I don't think there is much difference. In fact, I think the difference is the same as the difference between people who like to eat a special food with different sauces!
 
lol the extra special sauce.

Seriously though I just wondered if somewhere the use of the negative sign has some sort of a practical reason. Like for example when solving partial differential equations using the separation of variables method, we sometimes for convenience stick a minus sign in front of eigenvalue/"separation constant."
 
DiogenesTorch said:
lol the extra special sauce.

Seriously though I just wondered if somewhere the use of the negative sign has some sort of a practical reason. Like for example when solving partial differential equations using the separation of variables method, we sometimes for convenience stick a minus sign in front of eigenvalue/"separation constant."
I sometimes do things with Sturm-Liouville theory and I don't put that minus sign there and never encountered a problem which can be solved by that minus sign!
 
Shyan said:
I sometimes do things with Sturm-Liouville theory and I don't put that minus sign there and never encountered a problem which can be solved by that minus sign!

Cool just wondered if it ever mattered. Thanks Shyan much appreciated :)
 
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