MHB Sum Binomials: Proving Numerical Test Result

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The discussion centers on a complex sum involving binomial coefficients and alternating series, which numerically appears to equal \((N+1)N/(2N+1)^2\). Participants are exploring various mathematical frameworks to prove this identity, including the use of shifted Legendre polynomials and connections to the Hilbert matrix. A significant reduction of the problem is proposed, leading to an identity that has been proven in another context. However, despite these insights and frameworks, no definitive proof of the original sum has been established yet. The conversation highlights the challenges and intricacies of proving such combinatorial identities.
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I have this sum $$\left(N+1\right)^{2}\underset{j=1}{\overset{N}{\sum}}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{j}}{2j+1}\dbinom{N}{j}\dbinom{N+j}{j-1}\underset{i=1}{\overset{N}{\sum}}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{i}}{\left(2i+1\right)\left(i+j\right)}\dbinom{N}{i}\dbinom{N+i}{i-1}$$ and numerical test indicates that is equal to $$\frac{\left(N+1\right)N}{\left(2N+1\right)^{2}}$$ but I'm not able to prove it. Thank you.
 
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Bibubo said:
I have this sum $$\left(N+1\right)^{2}\underset{j=1}{\overset{N}{\sum}}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{j}}{2j+1}\dbinom{N}{j}\dbinom{N+j}{j-1}\underset{i=1}{\overset{N}{\sum}}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{i}}{\left(2i+1\right)\left(i+j\right)}\dbinom{N}{i}\dbinom{N+i}{i-1}$$ and numerical test indicates that is equal to $$\frac{\left(N+1\right)N}{\left(2N+1\right)^{2}}$$ but I'm not able to prove it. Thank you.
I can't prove it either, but I have a framework where this result fits. If you write the sum as $$S_n = \sum_{i,j=1}^n \frac1{2i+1}\frac1{2j+1} \frac{(-1)^{i+j}(n+1)^2}{i+j}{n\choose i}{n+i\choose i-1} {n\choose j}{n+i\choose j-1}$$ and use the fact that $${n+i\choose i} = \frac{n+1}i{n+i\choose i-1}$$, you see that $$S_n = \sum_{i,j=1}^n \frac1{2i+1}\frac1{2j+1} \frac{(-1)^{i+j}ij}{i+j}{n\choose i}{n+i\choose i} {n\choose j}{n+i\choose j}.$$ That sum looks remarkably similar to those that occurred in http://mathhelpboards.com/linear-abstract-algebra-14/find-a_1-3-a_2-5-a-7056.html (see in particular the equations labelled (1) and (2) in my comment #4 there). Using the notation of that thread, let $H_n$ be the $n\times n$ Hilbert matrix, let $H_n^{-1} = X_n^*X_n$ be the factorisation of its inverse into lower- and upper-triangular matrices, and let $k$ be the vector $\bigl(\frac13,\frac15,\ldots, \frac1{2n+1}\bigr).$ Then your sum $S_n$ is exactly one-quarter of the sum in that other thread, namely $S_n = \langle H_n^{-1}k,k\rangle = \|X_nk\|^2$. In that thread, anemone and I decided that this must be equal to $\frac14\!\bigl(1-\frac1{(2n+1)^2}\bigr)$, which agrees with your conjecture $S_n = \frac{n(n+1)}{(2n+1)^2}.$ But I still can't prove it!
 
Opalg said:
I can't prove it either, but I have a framework where this result fits. If you write the sum as $$S_n = \sum_{i,j=1}^n \frac1{2i+1}\frac1{2j+1} \frac{(-1)^{i+j}(n+1)^2}{i+j}{n\choose i}{n+i\choose i-1} {n\choose j}{n+i\choose j-1}$$ and use the fact that $${n+i\choose i} = \frac{n+1}i{n+i\choose i-1}$$, you see that $$S_n = \sum_{i,j=1}^n \frac1{2i+1}\frac1{2j+1} \frac{(-1)^{i+j}ij}{i+j}{n\choose i}{n+i\choose i} {n\choose j}{n+i\choose j}.$$ That sum looks remarkably similar to those that occurred in http://mathhelpboards.com/linear-abstract-algebra-14/find-a_1-3-a_2-5-a-7056.html (see in particular the equations labelled (1) and (2) in my comment #4 there). Using the notation of that thread, let $H_n$ be the $n\times n$ Hilbert matrix, let $H_n^{-1} = X_n^*X_n$ be the factorisation of its inverse into lower- and upper-triangular matrices, and let $k$ be the vector $\bigl(\frac13,\frac15,\ldots, \frac1{2n+1}\bigr).$ Then your sum $S_n$ is exactly one-quarter of the sum in that other thread, namely $S_n = \langle H_n^{-1}k,k\rangle = \|X_nk\|^2$. In that thread, anemone and I decided that this must be equal to $\frac14\!\bigl(1-\frac1{(2n+1)^2}\bigr)$, which agrees with your conjecture $S_n = \frac{n(n+1)}{(2n+1)^2}.$ But I still can't prove it!
Yes I see what you say... I've think to use in some way the Legendre shifted polynomials $$P_{N}\left(x\right)=\left(-1\right)^{N}\underset{i=0}{\overset{N}{\sum}}\dbinom{N}{i}\dbinom{N+i}{i}\left(-x\right)^{i}$$ because the sums are very similar, and because we have $$\int_{0}^{1}P_{m}\left(x\right)P_{n}\left(x\right)dx=\frac{\delta_{m,n}}{2n+1}$$ where $\delta_{m,n}$ is the Kronecker delta. Is it a stupid idea?
 
Bibubo said:
I've think to use in some way the Legendre shifted polynomials $$P_{N}\left(x\right)=\left(-1\right)^{N}\underset{i=0}{\overset{N}{\sum}}\dbinom{N}{i}\dbinom{N+i}{i}\left(-x\right)^{i}$$
The comment about shifted Legendre polynomials prompted me to think about this problem again. In the http://mathhelpboards.com/linear-abstract-algebra-14/find-a_1-3-a_2-5-a-7056.html#post32971, I showed how to reduce the problem to proving the identity $$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{(-1)^kk}{(n+k)(2k+1)}{n\choose k}{n+k\choose k} = \frac{-1}{4n^2-1} \qquad(*)$$ (see equation (4) and the following sentence in that thread). I posted this identity in the MathOverflow forum, where it received an amazingly clever proof that I can't resist repeating here.

The trick is to write the expression $\dfrac{(-1)^n(x-2)(x-4)\cdots(x- (2n-2))}{(x+2)(x+4)\cdots(x+2n)}$ as a sum of partial fractions. If you use the cover-up rule to find the coefficient of $\dfrac1{x+2k}$, you find that it is equal to $$ \frac{(-1)^n(-2k-2)(-2k-4) \cdots(-2k-2n+2)} {\bigl((-2k+2)(-2k+4)\cdots(-2)\bigr) \bigl(2\cdot4\cdots(-2k+2n)\bigr)}.$$ There are $n-1$ factors in the numerator, each of them a multiple of $-2$. In the denominator there are $k-1$ factors that are multiples of $-2$; and $n-k$ positive factors that are multiples of $2$. after cancelling all these $-1$s and $2$s, the coefficient of $\dfrac1{x+2k}$ becomes $$\begin{aligned}\frac{(-1)^k(k+1)(k+2)\cdots(n+k-1)}{(k-1)!(n-k)!} &= \frac{(-1)^k(n+k-1)!}{k!(k-1)!(n-k)!} \\ &= \frac{(-1)^kk}{n+k}\frac{(n+k)!n!}{(k!)^2((n-k)!n!} = \frac{(-1)^kk}{(n+k)}{n\choose k}{n+k\choose k}.\end{aligned}$$ Thus the partial fraction decomposition is $$ \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{(-1)^kk}{(n+k)(x+2k)}{n\choose k}{n+k\choose k} = \dfrac{(-1)^n(x-2)(x-4)\cdots(x- (2n-2))}{(x+2)(x+4)\cdots(x+2n)}.$$ Now put $x=1$. The left side then becomes the left side of (*). The right side becomes $$-\dfrac{1\cdot3 \cdot5\cdots(2n-3)}{3\cdot5 \cdot7\cdots(2n+1)} = \dfrac{-1}{(2n-1)(2n+1)} = \dfrac{-1}{4n^2-1},$$ just as we wanted!
 
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Opalg said:
The comment about shifted Legendre polynomials prompted me to think about this problem again. In the http://mathhelpboards.com/linear-abstract-algebra-14/find-a_1-3-a_2-5-a-7056.html#post32971, I showed how to reduce the problem to proving the identity $$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{(-1)^kk}{(n+k)(2k+1)}{n\choose k}{n+k\choose k} = \frac{-1}{4n^2-1} \qquad(*)$$ (see equation (4) and the following sentence in that thread). I posted this identity in the MathOverflow forum, where it received an amazingly clever proof that I can't resist repeating here.

The trick is to write the expression $\dfrac{(-1)^n(x-2)(x-4)\cdots(x- (2n-2))}{(x+2)(x+4)\cdots(x+2n)}$ as a sum of partial fractions. If you use the cover-up rule to find the coefficient of $\dfrac1{x+2k}$, you find that it is equal to $$ \frac{(-1)^n(-2k-2)(-2k-4) \cdots(-2k-2n+2)} {\bigl((-2k+2)(-2k+4)\cdots(-2)\bigr) \bigl(2\cdot4\cdots(-2k+2n)\bigr)}.$$ There are $n-1$ factors in the numerator, each of them a multiple of $-2$. In the denominator there are $k-1$ factors that are multiples of $-2$; and $n-k$ positive factors that are multiples of $2$. after cancelling all these $-1$s and $2$s, the coefficient of $\dfrac1{x+2k}$ becomes $$\begin{aligned}\frac{(-1)^k(k+1)(k+2)\cdots(n+k-1)}{(k-1)!(n-k)!} &= \frac{(-1)^k(n+k-1)!}{k!(k-1)!(n-k)!} \\ &= \frac{(-1)^kk}{n+k}\frac{(n+k)!n!}{(k!)^2((n-k)!n!} = \frac{(-1)^kk}{(n+k)(2k+1)}{n\choose k}{n+k\choose k}.\end{aligned}$$ Thus the partial fraction decomposition is $$ \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{(-1)^kk}{(n+k)(2k+1)(x+2k)}{n\choose k}{n+k\choose k} = \dfrac{(-1)^n(x-2)(x-4)\cdots(x- (2n-2))}{(x+2)(x+4)\cdots(x+2n)}.$$ Now put $x=1$. The left side then becomes the left side of (*). The right side becomes $\dfrac{-(2n-3)!}{(2n+1)!} = \dfrac{-1}{(2n-1)(2n+1)} = \dfrac{-1}{4n^2-1}$, just as we wanted!
Grat job! I have only one question... if you put $x=1$ in your identity you obtain $$\underset{k=1}{\overset{n}{\sum}}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{k}k}{\left(n+k\right)\left(2k+1\right)\left(1+2k\right)}\,\dbinom{n}{k}\dbinom{n+k}{k}$$ and it isn't like the left side of (*) because there is a another factor $1+2k$... where am I wrong? Thank you!
 
Bibubo said:
Grat job! I have only one question... if you put $x=1$ in your identity you obtain $$\underset{k=1}{\overset{n}{\sum}}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{k}k}{\left(n+k\right)\left(2k+1\right)\left(1+2k\right)}\,\dbinom{n}{k}\dbinom{n+k}{k}$$ and it isn't like the left side of (*) because there is a another factor $1+2k$... where am I wrong? Thank you!
It's not you that is wrong, it was me. I accidentally put an extraneous $2k+1$ into the previous line. I have now edited it out.

Edit. I have also corrected another mistake. In the last line, the numerator and denominator of the fraction should not have consisted of factorials, but of products of odd numbers.
 
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