Super silly question about a polynomial identity

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greg_rack
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Am I(always) legitimized to write ##-(a-b)^n=(b-a)^n##?
I don't know why but it's confusing me... can't really understand when and why I can use that identity
 
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fresh_42 said:
Simply try some low numbers for ##n##. And of course, it is allow in case ##a=b##.
Yup, it works for ##n=2## and ##n=3##, so I'd say it could be generalized to any odd and even integer index...

I imagine the most rigorous demonstration for it would be done by using Newton's binomial theorem(?), but is there an intuitive/more-straightforward way to demonstrate it, in order to get me convinced? :)
 
fresh_42 said:
How can it work for ##n=2## if squares are non negative, but the left hand side is?
Nevermind, I wrote without thinking...

By the way:
$$(b-a)^n=[-1(a-b)]^n=(-1)^n(a-b)^n$$
which is equal to ##-(a-b)^n## only for odd indexes.
 
greg_rack said:
Nevermind, I wrote without thinking...

By the way:
$$(b-a)^n=[-1(a-b)]^n=(-1)^n(a-b)^n$$
which is equal to ##-(a-b)^n## only for odd indexes.
Yes, you have ## -(a-b)^n=(-1)^n(a-b)^n##. Now comes the important step which is usually forgotten and a never ending well of mistakes!

Case 1: ##(a-b)^n = 0 \Longrightarrow a=b##
Case 2: ##(a-b)^n\neq 0 \Longrightarrow (-1)^n=-1 \Longrightarrow n \text{ odd }##
 
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fresh_42 said:
Yes, you have ## -(a-b)^n=(-1)^n(a-b)^n##. Now comes the important step which is usually forgotten and a never ending well of mistakes!

Case 1: ##(a-b)^n = 0 \Longrightarrow a=b##
Case 2: ##(a-b)^n\neq 0 \Longrightarrow (-1)^n=-1 \Longrightarrow n \text{ odd }##
Got it, thanks a lot!