Tangent line approximations with trig. functions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the equations of tangent lines to the function f(x) = sin(x) at specific points, x = 0 and x = π/3, and using these lines to approximate sin(π/6). Participants are exploring the accuracy of these approximations and questioning the differences in their results.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the process of finding tangent lines and their equations, as well as the implications of using these lines for approximation. Questions arise regarding the expected accuracy of the approximations and the reasoning behind any discrepancies observed.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the nature of the approximations, suggesting that one may overestimate and the other underestimate the true value. However, there is a recognition of a mistake regarding the true value of sin(π/6) and its relation to the approximations, indicating an ongoing exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working within the constraints of using tangent line approximations and are questioning the assumptions related to the behavior of the sine function around the points of interest.

Jacobpm64
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Find the equations of the tangent lines to the graph of f(x) = \sin x at x = 0 and at x = \frac{ \pi }{3}. Use each tangent line to approximate \sin( \frac{ \pi }{6} ). Would you expect these results to be equally accurate, since they are taken equally far away from x = \frac{ \pi }{6} but on opposite sides? If the accuracy is different, can you account for the difference?

Here are my attempts:
Well, first let's find the equations of the tangent lines.
f(0) = \sin (0) = 0
f(\frac{ \pi }{3}) = \sin( \frac{ \pi }{3}) = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}

f'(x) = \cos (x)
f'(0) = \cos (0) = 1
f'(\frac{ \pi }{3}) = \cos( \frac{ \pi }{3}) = \frac{1}{2}

So we have (0,0), m = 1.
y = x <---- tangent line at x = 0.

And we have (\frac{ \pi }{3} , \frac{ \sqrt{3}}{2}) , m = \frac{1}{2}
y = \frac{1}{2} x + \frac{3\sqrt{3} - \pi}{6} <---- tangent line at x = \frac{ \pi }{3}

Now we'll use the tangent lines to approximate \sin( \frac{ \pi }{6}).
Using y = x.
y(\frac{ \pi }{6}) = \frac{ \pi }{6} \approx 0.5236

Using y = \frac{1}{2} x + \frac{3\sqrt{3} - \pi}{6}
y(\frac{ \pi }{6}) = \frac{ \sqrt{3} }{2} - \frac{ \pi }{12} \approx 0.6042

They are obviously different. I don't know why they are different though.

Thanks in advance.
 
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L(x) = f(a) +f&#039;(a)(x-a). Think about the graph of the sine function. The linear approximation of \sin x at a = 0 is \sin x \approx x. Also the tangent line approximations are taken from opposite sides of \sin \frac{\pi}{6}. So, its similar to the squeeze theorem. One approximation will overestimate the true value, and another approximation will underestimate the true value.
 
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well, the thing that bothers me, is you said that one approximation should be an underestimate and one should be an overestimate.

the true value of \sin( \frac{ \pi }{6}) = \frac{1}{2}

1/2 is not between our two approximations.
 
ah yes my mistake. I think the key reason is the difference between the areas of approximation (i.e. 0 and \frac{\pi}{6})
 
Last edited:

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