Tangent planes passing through coordinates origin.

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a surface defined by a smooth function in differential geometry, specifically focusing on proving that all tangent planes to this surface pass through the origin in three-dimensional space.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the definitions and properties of tangent planes and surfaces, with one participant attempting to find a smooth regular surface patch to facilitate the proof. Questions arise about how to demonstrate that the tangent planes include the origin.

Discussion Status

The discussion is progressing with participants sharing their approaches and clarifying definitions. Some guidance has been offered regarding how to show that the origin lies within the tangent planes, but no consensus has been reached on the overall proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working within the constraints of differential geometry and the definitions of smooth functions and tangent planes. There is an acknowledgment of confusion regarding the proof process, indicating a need for further clarification.

Alteran
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The problem from Differential Geometry:

Let [tex]\gamma : R -> R[/tex] is smooth function and [tex]U = {(x,y,z) \in R^3 : x \ne 0}[/tex] - open subset.
Function [tex]f : U -> R[/tex] is defined as [tex]f(x,y,z) = z - x\gamma(y/x)[/tex] and this is smooth function.
Proof that for surface[tex]S = f^{-1}(0)[/tex] all tangent planes passing through coordinates origin.

Can anyone give me a hint?
 
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You mean to say:

"Prove that for the surface f-1(0), all tangent planes pass through the origin"

What have you tried so far? What definitions are you working with? I defined a set V = {(x,y) in R² : x not equal to 0}. Then I found a smooth regular surface patch [itex]\sigma : V \to \mathbb{R}^3[/itex] such that [itex]\sigma (V) = f^{-1}(0)[/itex]. Writing it this way, I found it easy to find the tangent planes to the surface, and then easily showed that each of those tangent planes pass through the origin.
 
Yes, exactly - "Prove that for the surface f-1(0), all tangent planes pass through the origin".

I have found tangent planes for this surface, but how to show that they are passing through the origin? I need to show, that these planes are defined in (0,0,0)? or something else?
 
Last edited:
A plane is just a set of points. Show that for each tangent plane, (0,0,0) is in that plane, i.e. (0,0,0) is in that set of points. For example, the point (1,0,y(0)) [I'm writing y instead of gamma] is in the surface. The tangent plane at this point is the plane:

{a(1,0,y(0)) + b(0,1,y'(0)) + (1,0,y(0)) : a, b in R}

I need to show that the origin (0,0,0) is in this plane, i.e. that there exist real a and b such that:

a(1,0,y(0)) + b(0,1,y'(0)) + (1,0,y(0)) = (0,0,0)

But that's easy:

a=-1, b=0.

Is there any part of this you didn't understand?
 
Thanks for support. I think now I can catch what is going on. I was little bit confused :blushing:
 

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