Taylor Expansion Homework: Find First 3 Terms for (1+2x)^-1/4 & sin(x^2)/x

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the first three non-zero terms of the Taylor expansion about zero for the functions (1+2x)^-1/4 and sin(x^2)/x. Participants express uncertainty about the concept of Taylor expansion and what it means to expand "about zero." They seek clarification on the process and implications of differentiating these functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to differentiate the functions and calculate derivatives at zero, while others express confusion about the existence of certain function values at zero. Questions arise regarding the interpretation of Taylor series and the implications of undefined values in the context of the problem.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, sharing their attempts at differentiation and discussing the implications of their findings. Some guidance has been offered regarding the nature of Taylor series and the need to consider limits for functions that are not defined at certain points. Multiple interpretations of the problems are being explored, particularly regarding the handling of discontinuities.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that for the function sin(x^2)/x, the value at zero is not defined, leading to discussions about removable discontinuities and limits. Additionally, there is uncertainty about whether further derivatives will yield non-zero terms in the Taylor expansion for the second set of questions.

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Homework Statement


Find the first three non-zero terms of the Taylor expansion about zero in each of the following cases:
a) (1+2x)^-1/4
b) sin(x^2)/x

2. The attempt at a solution
I don't even know where to begin. I've only just read about what Talyors expansion is, and I don't know what's meant by 'about zero'. If someone could show me some answers and the steps they took to arrive at them though, I'm sure I would learn a lot from it.
 
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A power series is of the form
[tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n (x- a)^n[/tex]
and the sum is "about a". In particular, a sum "about 0" is of the form
[tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n x^n[/itex]<br /> <br /> The <b>Taylor's series</b> of f(x), about a, is given by <br /> [tex]\sum_{n= 0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!} \frac{d^n f(a)}{dx^n} (x- a)^n[/tex]<br /> so your problem is really just finding the first three non-zero derivatives at x= 0.<br /> <br /> The Taylor's series "about 0" is also called the "McLaurin series".[/tex]
 
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Thanks! Mind checking my answers and 'tidying them up' to fit the question?
a) f(x) = (1+2x)^-1/4
by the chain rule
f'(x) = -1/2(1+2x)^-5/4
f''(x) = 5/4(1+2x)^-9/4
f(0) = 1
f'(0) = -1/2
f''(0) = 5/4
b)
f(x) = sin(x^2)/x
by the chain rule and the product rule
f'(x) = 2cos(x^2) - f(x)
f''(x) = -4xsin(x^2) - f'(x)
f(0) = ... wait I've been doing this wrong haven't I? f(0) doesn't exist. lol
 
While I'm waiting for a reply, more practice differentiating (I'm very rusty), these questions from a different years past paper:

Homework Statement



Find the first three non-zero terms of the Taylor expansion about zero in each of the following cases:
a) (1+x^2)^1/2
b) sin(2x)/x

2. The attempt at a solution

a)
f(x) = (1+x^2)^1/2
f'(x) = x(1+x^2)^-1/2
f''(x) = f'(x) - x^2(1+x^2)^-3/2

b)
f(x) = sin(2x)/x
f'(x) = 2cos(2x)/x - sin(2x)/x^2
f''(x) = -4sin(2x)/x - 4cos(2x)/x^2 - sin(2x)/x^3
 
You're right for the first part. Just substitute the terms into the formulae given and you're done. Turns out that f(0) isn't defined for b), and neither does f'(0) and f''(0).
 
so what answer would I give for question b) in the exam? Would they still expect me to differentiate the expression twice for any marks though, even though a cursory glance shows that f(0) is not defined? Additionally, in a) of the second set of questions I posted, if I have differentiated correctly f'(0)=0 and f''(0)=0, so these are not non-zero terms in the Taylor expansion. Am I correct in assuming that further derivatives will also give 0 when x=0, and if so what answer would I give for this question?
 
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Gwilim said:
Thanks! Mind checking my answers and 'tidying them up' to fit the question?
Please note that I have edited my first response (so I can pretend never to have made such a silly mistake!). I have added the "1/n!" term.

a) f(x) = (1+2x)^-1/4
by the chain rule
f'(x) = -1/2(1+2x)^-5/4
f''(x) = 5/4(1+2x)^-9/4
f(0) = 1
f'(0) = -1/2
f''(0) = 5/4
So the first 3 terms of the "Taylor's series about 0" are 1, (-1/2) x, and (5/4)(1/2!)x^2= (5/8)x^2. The "quadratic Taylor's polynomial about 0" is 1- (1/2)x+ (5/8)x^2.

b)
f(x) = sin(x^2)/x
by the chain rule and the product rule
f'(x) = 2cos(x^2) - f(x)
If you use the product rule then you need to write the function as f(x)= sin(x^2)x^(-1) and f'(x)= (2x)(cos(x^2)(x^-1)- x^(-2)sin(x^2)= 2cos(x^2)- sin(x^2)/x^2.
Of course, you could also use the quotient rule: f'(x)= [(2x)cos(x^2)(x)- (1)sin(x^2)]/x^2= 2cos(x^2)- sin(x^2)/x^2 again.

f''(x) = -4xsin(x^2) - f'(x)
f(0) = ... wait I've been doing this wrong haven't I? f(0) doesn't exist. lol
No, f(0) doesn't exist but its limit does. It has a "removable discontinuity" at x= 0 since sin(x^2)/x = (x)(sin(x^2)/x^2)-> (0)(1)= 0. The function defined by f(x)= sin(x^2)/x if x is not 0, 0 if x= 0. For that function, f(0)= 0, f'(0)= 1. You will need to recalculate f" since your f' is wrong.
 
Thanks again for the help, and for pointing out the error in differentiating b).

HallsofIvy said:
No, f(0) doesn't exist but its limit does. It has a "removable discontinuity" at x= 0 since sin(x^2)/x = (x)(sin(x^2)/x^2)-> (0)(1)= 0. The function defined by f(x)= sin(x^2)/x if x is not 0, 0 if x= 0. For that function, f(0)= 0, f'(0)= 1. You will need to recalculate f" since your f' is wrong.

Let me see if I understand this. f(x) is very small for very small values of x, or as x tends to 0, f(x) tends to 0. So we take f(0)= 0 for the purposes of providing an answer.

Making corrections:
f'(x) = 2cos(x^2) - sin(x^2)/x^2
f''(x) = -4sin(x^2) + 2sin(x^2)/x^3 - 2cos(x^2)/x
f'(0) = 1 (assuming sin(x^2)/x^2 can be said to be equal to 1 when x = 0)
f''(0) = oh no... the sin term thankfully goes to 0, but the other two terms tend to infinity? and are of opposite signs? I'm just going to guess this is equal to 0.

since f(0) = 0 and f''(0) probably equals 0, I have to differentiate again to get the second term? And assuming the third derivative also tends to zero I'll have to differentiate again to get the third term. That seems like a lot of work for the amount of marks the question is worth.
 
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