I Taylor expansion of f(x)=arctan(x) at infinity

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The discussion focuses on finding the Taylor expansion of f(x) = arctan(x) at infinity. The initial approach involved substituting z = 1/x, leading to the expansion of f(z) = arctan(1/z) near zero. However, this method was found to be incorrect, prompting the realization that arctan(x) can be expressed as π/2 - arctan(1/x) for x > 0. Participants discussed the correct calculation of derivatives and the series expansion, emphasizing that the series for arctan should be approached with care to avoid errors. Alternative methods, such as using the relationship between arctan and arccot, were also considered for deriving the Taylor series.
laurabon
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I have to write taylor expansion of f(x)=arctan(x) around at x=+∞.
My first idea was to set z=1/x
and in this case z→0
Thus I can expand f(z)= arctan(1/z) near 0
so I obtain 1/z-1/3(z^3)
Then I try to reverse the substitution but this is incorrect .I discovered after that arctanx=π/2−arctan(1/x) for all x>0 and than I can write the correct result walphram alpha gives to me
Now I would like to know if there is an alternative way to get the result without knowing arctanx=π/2−arctan(1/x) for all x>0
 
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laurabon said:
I have to write taylor expansion of f(x)=arctan(x) around at x=+∞.
My first idea was to set z=1/x
and in this case z→0
Thus I can expand f(z)= arctan(1/z) near 0
so I obtain 1/z-1/3(z^3)

How did you obtain this result? Taking the series for \arctan t about t = 0 and setting t = z^{-1} won't give the right answer.

This idea will work, if you calculate the series correctly.

For the constant term, f(0^{+}) = \arctan(\infty) = \frac{\pi}2. Then f&#039;(z) = <br /> \frac{d}{dz}\arctan(z^{-1}) = -\frac{1}{z^2} \frac{1}{1 + z^{-2}} = - \frac{1}{1 + z^2} and then <br /> f^{(n)}(z) = \frac{d^n}{dz^n} \arctan(z^{-1}) = -\frac{d^{n-1}}{dz^{n-1}} \frac{1}{1 + z^2},\qquad n \geq 2. Alternatively, you could note that if x = \tan \theta then x^{-1} = \cot \theta so that f(z) = \operatorname{arccot}(z).
 
Hi , thanks for your replies . Can I use the fact that 1/(1-x)=1+x+x^2+...
and so 1/(1+x^2)=1-x^2+x^4+...
and obtain f'(0)=-1 f^3(0)=-2! and so on ?