Terminal Velocity: Solving a Puzzling Problem

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the integration of the equation dv/(v-vt) = -k/m (dt) and the confusion surrounding the resulting logarithmic expressions. The book's solution, ln((vt-v)/vt) = -k/m t, is compared with a participant's own integration approach, which led to ln(v-vt). The key point of contention is the treatment of vt as a constant and the implications of the variable changes in the logarithmic terms. Ultimately, the participant realizes their mistake after reevaluating the integral and acknowledges that factoring out a negative sign simplifies the process and avoids logarithms of negative numbers. The conversation highlights the importance of careful integration and understanding variable relationships in solving differential equations.
Cyrus
Messages
3,237
Reaction score
17
looking back at a problem that puzzled the heck out of me.


integrate this: dv/(v-vt) = -k/m (dt).

The book says you get: ln ( (vt-v)/Vt ) = -k/m t

the -k/mt part is fine, because you integrate from 0 to t. The ln part is tricky though. When I integrate, I get ln(v-vt), vt is just a constant. If you do the derivative of my anwser or the books they are the same. How did the book arrive at this anwser and not mine.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Can you rewrite the problem more carefully? I don't understand how vt can be a constant if it has 'v' in it, or why a lowercase v suddenly becomes a capital V somewhere, or why v-vt suddenly becomes vt-v. Thanks.
 
Just evaluate the definite integral to get the desired result:

\int_{0}^{v} \frac {dv'}{v'-v_t} = -\int_{0}^{v} \frac {dv'}{v_t-v'} = \ln{(v_t-v)} - \ln{v_t} = \ln \frac {v_t-v}{v_t}
 
Tide said:
Just evaluate the definite integral to get the desired result:

\int_{0}^{v} \frac {dv'}{v'-v_t} = -\int_{0}^{v} \frac {dv'}{v_t-v'} = \ln{(v_t-v)} - \ln{v_t} = \ln \frac {v_t-v}{v_t}


but why even to bothing factoring out a minus sign tide? It just complicateds the integral. Its much simpler to just integrate and get ln(v-vt), no?

when you do the limits you get, ln(v-vt)-ln(v). so that's equal to ln ((v-vt)/v).


Oh my gosh. I completely poo-pooed that integral. I worked it out my way and got the same anwser. Boy do I feel like an idiot. it should work out to be,
ln(v-vt) from 0 to v, which is ln(v-vt)-ln(-vt) = to ln(1-v/vt). Thats just Embarrassing. :frown:
 
Last edited:
Cyrus,

You factor out the -1 because (a) v < vt and (b) you avoid the nastiness of dealing with logarithms of negative numbers.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Thread 'Beam on an inclined plane'
Hello! I have a question regarding a beam on an inclined plane. I was considering a beam resting on two supports attached to an inclined plane. I was almost sure that the lower support must be more loaded. My imagination about this problem is shown in the picture below. Here is how I wrote the condition of equilibrium forces: $$ \begin{cases} F_{g\parallel}=F_{t1}+F_{t2}, \\ F_{g\perp}=F_{r1}+F_{r2} \end{cases}. $$ On the other hand...
Back
Top