russ_watters said:
That scenario ignores the fact that the criminal has already violated the golden rule...
In what way has he violated it? Most, probably the criminal would like to be treated with respect, goodness and justice. But what does he know about respect, goodness and justice? Does he know exactly as much as the judge? The jury? Anyone? How can the way you want to be treated be universal? How can your perception of good treatment be universal?
Sure, the criminal must pay the price of prison time, but the Golden Rule says nothing about that. Especially in the literal sense.
"an eye for an eye" would fit much better.
russ_watters said:
First and foremost, we need to start with a definition of what morality is, or rather, what a moral society should look like. I define a morality's impact on society according to stability, prosperity, peace, and happiness. So a moral society would be one who'se morality causes these things while an immoral society's morality causes the opposite.
In a teleological sense, yes. But what is society's purpose, what are its goals? How do you know they are to be stable, peaceful and prosper, and to keep everyone happy. I am not going to disagree with you (you did say that "I" define morality's impact...), I do agree, but we can never be sure. The Golden Rule doesn't gives us any certainty. It doesn't indicate how society should be.
What makes you happy? Is it the same as what makes me happy? What made Ed Gein happy? Is what makes Ed Gein happy not the oposite of what makes us happy? Sure it is, we are not cannibals. But whose definition of happiness is more valid? Do we not need an absolute standard of "happiness" to compare to? Where is this standard in the Golden Rule? It's not there. I don't think The Golden Rule gives any indication or basis for moral absolutism.
russ_watters said:
So this implies a test of an application of the Golden Rule. Take any action and ask the question: Does this action, if taken by everyone, positively or negatively impact society?
But does everyone know the answer to the question they've just asked themselves? Would you agree that selfishness may corrupt them in making the right decision? Do we all have the same amount of selfishness? Not at all. We all think differently about what would effect society in a positive way and a negative way. That's politics. After all, "I" am a part of society. I cannot say what is truly for the better of society without my selfishness corrupting my answer. And the the key word in ""Do unto others as you would have others do unto you" is "
you".
russ_watters said:
This question is, in fact, the test for rational moral absolutism. As a matter of fact, the golden rule itself is almost the definition of an absolute moral principle: ie, for a principle to be absolute, it must be possible to apply it universally - and that's what the golden rule does, it forces you to consider the consequences of applying your rule universally.
Sure, you can apply it anywhere to anyone. But the once it's applied, opinion and perpective are the only way of defining what is right or wrong. For example:
Imagine a world where we all lived by the Golden Rule, and only the Golden rule. Gouverments, justice systems, society etc. Suppose a thief named Daniel was on trial. The judge says, "Daniel, you violated the Golden Rule." Daniel, in his attempt to be let of the hook for his crime, simply says, "No I didn't your honor, I actually would like people to steal from me, I believe it is good treatment, I believe people enjoy owning something they didn't pay for..."
What would the judge say next? Wouldn't he have to create some absolute standard to define Daniel's action as immoral? Such a standard is nonexistent in the Golden Rule. As I read on Wikipedia, George Bernard Shaw said that "The golden rule is that there are no golden rules".
Forget the fact that the story isn't realistic. It still imply's that the Golden Rule doesn't say much about true morality. It imply's that it's based on opinion, up-bringging, and perspective. Thus is relativism.