The Magic of Avatar's 3-D Technology

  • Thread starter Thread starter Loren Booda
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Work
AI Thread Summary
Avatar's 3-D technology significantly enhances color, subtlety, and naturalness compared to earlier 3-D films. Key advancements include high-definition filming for live-action segments and compact cameras that enable more realistic movements. The system utilized allows for camera tilting similar to human eye movement when approaching objects. Additionally, many 3-D elements were created digitally, contributing to the film's immersive experience. These innovations collectively elevate the overall quality of 3-D projection in cinema.
Loren Booda
Messages
3,108
Reaction score
4
The film Avatar with 3-dimensional projection seems much superior in color, subtlety and naturalness to the 3-D shows of old. How do they do it?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Advancements in 3-d technology, HD filming for the human parts, bigger HDD in less space for higher quality film. That is my guess anyways.
 
The cameras are a lot smaller so you can do more realistic camera moves.
The system Avatar used can also tilt the cameras toward each other as they get close to an object (like your eyes do), they also generated a lot of the 3d objects completely digitally
 

Thread 'Is calling fictitious forces "not real" just about terminology?'

Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
View full post »

Thread 'Derivation of Hamilton's Principle: Questions'

I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
View full post »

Similar threads

I Optimizing Drumstick Bounce: Finding the Magic Fulcrum Point
Replies
31
Views
2K
Why the work done is coming out to be positive?
Replies
9
Views
1K
Vt=d doesn't seem to hold true w/ constant acceleration
Replies
5
Views
2K
3D Cinema Glasses: An Unsolved Personal Experience
Replies
9
Views
2K
B Combinatorics and Magic squares
Replies
2
Views
2K
Turing Prize goes to Pixar Computer Graphics Pioneers
Replies
1
Views
1K
Work: Dot Product and Integral?
Replies
7
Views
3K
Does there exist a 2x2 non-singular matrix with only one 1d eigenspace?
Replies
2
Views
1K
A Recover Hamilton equation from 2-form defined on phase space
Replies
3
Views
1K
What features in today's sci-fi do you think will become reality?
Replies
19
Views
3K

Hot Threads

Recent Insights

Back
Top