I am trying to understand the magnet and conductor problem that Einstein mentions at the beginning of one of his 1905 papers. In the frame of reference of the conductor, the magnet moves. Why does this mean that Faraday's law is applicable and not Lorentz force law? In the frame of reference of the magnet, the conductor moves. Why mean that Lorentz force law is applicable and not Faraday's law? The experiment generates the same current if either one of the items moves. This is taken as evidence that we can't tell if the magnet is at rest or the conductor, if any. I don't understand how?