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Let [Math]x ∈ A1 ∪ A2[/Math] then [Math]x ∈ A1[/Math] or [Math]x ∈ A2[/Math]
If [Math]x ∈ A1[/Math], as A1 is open, there exists an r > 0 such that [Math]B(x,r) ⊂ A1⊂ A1 ∪ A2[/Math] and thus B(x,r) is an open set.
Therefore [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] is an open set.
How does this prove that [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] is an open set. It just proved that [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] contains an open set; not that the entire set will be open? This is very similar to the statement: An open subset of R is a subset E of R such that for every x in E there exists ϵ > 0 such that Bϵ(x) is contained in E.
If [Math]x ∈ A1[/Math], as A1 is open, there exists an r > 0 such that [Math]B(x,r) ⊂ A1⊂ A1 ∪ A2[/Math] and thus B(x,r) is an open set.
Therefore [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] is an open set.
How does this prove that [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] is an open set. It just proved that [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] contains an open set; not that the entire set will be open? This is very similar to the statement: An open subset of R is a subset E of R such that for every x in E there exists ϵ > 0 such that Bϵ(x) is contained in E.
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