The VERY last part of finding an eigenvector

  • Thread starter Thread starter claret_n_blue
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Eigenvector
claret_n_blue
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
I can do everything, until I get to the point of actually putting the system of equations into that eigenvector "form". I won't use my actual numbers, but say I have solved everything and got:

ax = by
ax = by

Where a and b are 2 numbers, but a doesn't equal b.

Does this mean that for everyone 1 'y', I get (a/b) lots of x's, and so my vector is (a/b, 1). Or is it the other way round so for everyone 1 'x', I get (b/a) y's, so my vector is (1,b/a). Or is it simply (a,b)?

Thank you for your help :)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Oops, you got your algebra slightly wrong. It should be (b/a) lots of x's for every 1 y, etc.

The eigenvector just defines a "direction", not a magnitude, so you might as well use the simplest form you can write down. That would be (b,a) for your example.

For some applications of eigenvectors, the magnitude is "normalized", for example so that xTx = 1, or xTAx = 1 where A is some matrix, or a particular element in the vector equals 1. But there is no point in doing that unless you have a reason for doing it.
 
Last edited:
claret_n_blue said:
I can do everything, until I get to the point of actually putting the system of equations into that eigenvector "form". I won't use my actual numbers, but say I have solved everything and got:

ax = by
ax = by

Where a and b are 2 numbers, but a doesn't equal b.

Does this mean that for everyone 1 'y', I get (a/b) lots of x's, and so my vector is (a/b, 1). Or is it the other way round so for everyone 1 'x', I get (b/a) y's, so my vector is (1,b/a). Or is it simply (a,b)?

Thank you for your help :)
How about "all of the above"? If you have a single equation, ax= by, then there are an infinite number of (x, y) pairs that satisfy the equation. (a/b, 1), (1, b/a), and (a, b) are all among them. Those all represent vectors in the same direction, or in the same subspace, with different lengths. So is another important pair: (a/\sqrt{a^2+ b^2}, b/\sqrt{a^2+ b^2}), the unit vector in that direction.

The crucial point is this- there is no single "eigenvector" corresponding to a given eigenvalue. The set of all eigenvectors corresponding to a given eigenvalue is a subspace. In particular, any multiple of an eigenvector is also an eigenvector. (a/b, 1)= (1/b)(a, b), (1, b/a)= 1/a(1, b), and (a/\sqrt{a^2+ b^2}, b/\sqrt{a^2+ b^2})= [1/\sqrt{a^2+ b^2}](a, b) are all multiples of (a, b).
 
##\textbf{Exercise 10}:## I came across the following solution online: Questions: 1. When the author states in "that ring (not sure if he is referring to ##R## or ##R/\mathfrak{p}##, but I am guessing the later) ##x_n x_{n+1}=0## for all odd $n$ and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible, so that ##x_n=0##" 2. How does ##x_nx_{n+1}=0## implies that ##x_{n+1}## is invertible and ##x_n=0##. I mean if the quotient ring ##R/\mathfrak{p}## is an integral domain, and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible then...
The following are taken from the two sources, 1) from this online page and the book An Introduction to Module Theory by: Ibrahim Assem, Flavio U. Coelho. In the Abelian Categories chapter in the module theory text on page 157, right after presenting IV.2.21 Definition, the authors states "Image and coimage may or may not exist, but if they do, then they are unique up to isomorphism (because so are kernels and cokernels). Also in the reference url page above, the authors present two...
When decomposing a representation ##\rho## of a finite group ##G## into irreducible representations, we can find the number of times the representation contains a particular irrep ##\rho_0## through the character inner product $$ \langle \chi, \chi_0\rangle = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g\in G} \chi(g) \chi_0(g)^*$$ where ##\chi## and ##\chi_0## are the characters of ##\rho## and ##\rho_0##, respectively. Since all group elements in the same conjugacy class have the same characters, this may be...
Back
Top