- #1

SclayP

- 27

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So, like i said in the Title this more of a theorycal question. In my university notebook i have written that an integral to converge has to happen the next:

1. The f has to be bounded (if not its just a dot)

2.The interval has to be finit.

[THIS IS WHAT IT'S WRITTEN IN MY NOTEBOOK]

See, my really issue is what it means to be bounded. If has to be in an interval, or if has to have Upper and Lower bounds. And why does it say that the interval has to be finit if there are integral that are definite betwen 0 and infinity, for example and converge.

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For example:

[itex]\int^{infinty}_{1} \frac{1}{t} \, dt [/itex]

It's the function [itex]f(x) = \frac{1}{t}[/itex] or [itex]ln|t| + C[/itex] that has to be bounded.

Thanks

1. The f has to be bounded (if not its just a dot)

2.The interval has to be finit.

[THIS IS WHAT IT'S WRITTEN IN MY NOTEBOOK]

See, my really issue is what it means to be bounded. If has to be in an interval, or if has to have Upper and Lower bounds. And why does it say that the interval has to be finit if there are integral that are definite betwen 0 and infinity, for example and converge.

------------------------------------------------------------------

For example:

[itex]\int^{infinty}_{1} \frac{1}{t} \, dt [/itex]

It's the function [itex]f(x) = \frac{1}{t}[/itex] or [itex]ln|t| + C[/itex] that has to be bounded.

Thanks

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