Shredface
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How do I show that the scalar product is time independent?
I have: \frac{d}{dt}\int\Psi^{*}_{1}(x,t)\Psi_{2}(x,t)dx = 0
And have proceeded to take the derivatives inside the integral and using the time dependent Schrodinger eq. ending up with:
\frac{i}{\hbar}\int\left(\Psi^{*}_{1}\widehat{H}\Psi_{2}-\Psi_{2}\widehat{H}\Psi^{*}_{1}\right)dx
Using the Hermitian properties of \widehat{H} I then got to:
\frac{i}{\hbar}\int\left(\Psi^{*}_{1}\widehat{H}\Psi_{2} - \Psi_{1}\widehat{H}\Psi^{*}_{2}\right)dx
Either these two terms equivalent meaning they cancel and I have my result or I've made a drastic error somewhere. Can anyone help me out?
I have: \frac{d}{dt}\int\Psi^{*}_{1}(x,t)\Psi_{2}(x,t)dx = 0
And have proceeded to take the derivatives inside the integral and using the time dependent Schrodinger eq. ending up with:
\frac{i}{\hbar}\int\left(\Psi^{*}_{1}\widehat{H}\Psi_{2}-\Psi_{2}\widehat{H}\Psi^{*}_{1}\right)dx
Using the Hermitian properties of \widehat{H} I then got to:
\frac{i}{\hbar}\int\left(\Psi^{*}_{1}\widehat{H}\Psi_{2} - \Psi_{1}\widehat{H}\Psi^{*}_{2}\right)dx
Either these two terms equivalent meaning they cancel and I have my result or I've made a drastic error somewhere. Can anyone help me out?