bernhard.rothenstein
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At leasts in physics who is right should be right!
do you mean that the derivation does not involve LET?yogi said:To me its more instructive to proceed from the standpoint that all objects move through spacetime at c - and that the spacetime interval is invariant in all inertial frames. From this you get time dilation and length contraction in one step just as you do with the light clock
bernhard.rothenstein said:Discussing with a friend, I was told that using in a derivation the time dilation formula I implicitly use the Lorentz-Einstein transformations..
Jheriko said:You can derive Lorentz transforms from the requirement that something moving with speed c in any frame must appear to move with speed c in all other frames.
http://www.mth.uct.ac.za/omei/gr/chap1/frame1.html gives a pretty good outline of what must be done.
robphy said:Here is an analogous statement:
using in a derivation the "formula that says, in a right triangle, the length of the adjacent side is equal to cos(included angle)*(the length of the hypotenuse)" I implicitly use the "Euclidean rotation" transformations..
The premise that all objects move at velocity c through spacetime is consequent to Minkowski - it is implied in LET - but not explicitly stated by either Einstein or Lorentz - so for me its an easier starting point than the constancy of light in all frames - better as a tutorial from my perspective since you get the time dilation and length contraction relationships in an easily to visualize diagram. As one goes through the derivation of the Lorentz transforms it is easy to lose track of the physical connectionbernhard.rothenstein said:do you mean that the derivation does not involve LET?
yogi said:The premise that all objects move at velocity c through spacetime is consequent to Minkowski - it is implied in LET - but not explicitly stated by either Einstein or Lorentz - so for me its an easier starting point than the constancy of light in all frames - better as a tutorial from my perspective since you get the time dilation and length contraction relationships in an easily to visualize diagram. As one goes through the derivation of the Lorentz transforms it is easy to lose track of the physical connection
Regards
Yogi
I'm confused; there isn't anything to normalize for 4-velocity vectors: they are exactly equal torobphy said:That "all [massive] objects move at velocity c through spacetime" is merely the statement that we describe their 4-velocities as unit-timelike vectors (conventionally normalized to c).
Hurkyl said:I'm confused; there isn't anything to normalize for 4-velocity vectors: they are exactly equal to
d{coordinate position}/d{proper time}.
daniel_i_l said:one way to derive the time dilation formula is to use the invariance of the ST interval: t^2 - x^2 (assuming that you measure time in meters or distance in seconds - as long as everything is in the same units)is constant in all frames. for example, if there's a tunnel with length x in one frame and in that frame it takes time t for a rocket to go thru it then the ST interval between the first event (entering the tunnel) and the second (exiting) is t^2 - x^2. but in the rocket frame the distance between the events is 0 so: Trocket^2 = Trest^2 - Xrest^2.
another way to derive it is with the famous parallel mirrors clock.
robphy said:The standard "light clock" uses the invariance of the interval (declaring that a round trip by the light signal in an identically constructed light clock is one unit interval).
Thanks. I think that it is good to mention the other clocks when we consider the light clock out from its rest frame.robphy said:A light clock is formed from two inertial mirrors and a light ray that bounces back and forth between them. You may (for consistency) introduce other clocks... but, in my opinion, that is unnecssary for the operation of the light clock as a clock [at its natural resolution].
robphy said:That "all [massive] objects move at velocity c through spacetime" is merely the statement that we describe their 4-velocities as unit-timelike vectors (conventionally normalized to c).
However, that in itself does not fully characterize the situation in special relativity [since the same situation is true in a Galilean spacetime]. Somehow, you have to specify the location of all of the tips of those 4-velocities [a hyperboloid for SR, a hyperplane for Galilean], which is almost the same as specifying the metric. Alternatively, one can use the null cone, which is almost the same as the postulating the "constancy of a maximal signal speed".
most of the answers did neglect my original question: If I use in a derivation the time dilation formula and I am told that I use implicitly the Lorentz-Einstein transformation, is my discussion partner right or wrong?bernhard.rothenstein said:Discussing with a friend, I was told that using in a derivation the time dilation formula I implicitly use the Lorentz-Einstein transformations.. I mentioned that many Authors derive time dilation without using the LET considering that the transformation equations obscure the physics behind the studied problem. Others derive the addition law of velocities without using LET based on time dilation and length contraction. My oppinion is that as long as we do not perform the transformation of the space-time coordinates of the same event we do not use LET. Your opinion is highly appreciated. Thanks
At leasts in physics who is right should be right!