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Time invariance of Schrodinger equation

  1. Jul 9, 2011 #1
    The Schrodinger equation is linear in time. I was wondering if that means that is not invariant under time reversal. That would be a surprise because all other microscopic laws (Maxwell's equations, Newton's equations) are time invariant.
    Can you please clear this doubt?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 9, 2011 #2
    And it does not respect any more the relativistic invariance.
    Only the Dirac equation does. It only uses first order derivatives.
     
  4. Jul 9, 2011 #3
    Actually it is time invariant, since the time reversal operator is not unitary but antiunitary, so you have to complex-conjugate the wave function besides changing the sign of the time.
    Of course it doesn't respect relativistic invariance.
     
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