physicsguy101
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If anyone can give me some quick help on this, I would appreciate it.
Thanks in advance.
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If anyone can give me some quick help on this, I would appreciate it.
Thanks in advance.
bbbeard
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physicsguy101 said:If anyone can give me some quick help on this, I would appreciate it.
Thanks in advance.
I can't quite tell, but it looks like it's possible that the vertical and horizontal components of force could each sum to zero. But what about the moments? Try computing the sum of the moments about the center of the rod. Is it zero?
BBB
Arghzoo
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Well, looking at the horizontal axis only we can assume from the picture that the rod is in translational equilibrium (it doesn't move) along the horizontal axis. But looking in the vertical axis, we see a greater force downwards than the vertical component of F(3), so the rod is actually moving downwards (it's not in vertical translational equilibrium). Even if we assume that the rod is in translational equilibrium both in horizontal and vertical axes due to diagram error, if you call your pivot point the point where F(2) is acting upon, the only torque applied is a counterclockwise torque by the vertical component of F(3), which is perpendicular to a radius extending from the rod = actual torque.
I hope that helps!
I hope that helps!
physicsguy101
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Thanks guys! I appreciate the help!