Transform Equation X(j+1)=X(j)+c1*(Y(j)-Y(j-1))+c2(Z(j)-Z(j-1)) into Diff Eq

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around transforming a difference equation, specifically X(j+1)=X(j)+c1*(Y(j)-Y(j-1))+c2(Z(j)-Z(j-1)), into a differential equation. Participants are exploring the implications of approximating differences by derivatives and the role of a variable "z" in this transformation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are considering multiplying the original equation by (1/z) and approximating differences with derivatives. There are questions about the meaning of "z" and its relationship to the function Z(j). Additionally, some participants are rephrasing the problem using a different notation and exploring the implications of differentiating both sides of the equation.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and raising questions about the transformation process. Some guidance has been offered regarding the validity of the first approach, referencing the Taylor expansion series, though the lack of higher-order terms is noted.

Contextual Notes

There is some confusion regarding the variable "z" and its definition, as well as the implications of taking limits as "z" approaches zero. Participants are also considering the existence of derivatives for the functions involved.

Aline Rocha
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I have to transform this equation X(j+1)=X(j)+c1*(Y(j)-Y(j-1))+c2(Z(j)-Z(j-1))
in a differential one.

I would like to know if is it possible multiply the equation by (1/z), like this:

(X(j+1)-X(j)) / Z = c1*((Y(j)-Y(j-1))/ Z)+c2((Z(j)-Z(j-1)) / Z)

Then approximate the difference by derivates:

dX(j)=c1*dY(j)+c2*dZ(j) with z->0 ??
dz dz dz
 
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Aline Rocha said:
I have to transform this equation X(j+1)=X(j)+c1*(Y(j)-Y(j-1))+c2(Z(j)-Z(j-1))
in a differential one.

I would like to know if is it possible multiply the equation by (1/z), like this:

(X(j+1)-X(j)) / Z = c1*((Y(j)-Y(j-1))/ Z)+c2((Z(j)-Z(j-1)) / Z)

Then approximate the difference by derivates:

dX(j)=c1*dY(j)+c2*dZ(j) with z->0 ??
dz dz dz
What, exactly, is this "z" that you are dividing by? Is it the same as the function Z(j)?
And why would j+1 go to j as z goes to 0?
 
HallsofIvy said:
What, exactly, is this "z" that you are dividing by? Is it the same as the function Z(j)?
And why would j+1 go to j as z goes to 0?

Oh sorry! The "z" that I'm dividing isn't the same Z(j). And j+1=z+delta(z).
 
Ok, I'm going to try to write the problem again:
I have the following equation:

f(x+h)=f(x)+c1*(g(x)-g(x-h))+c2(h(x)-h(x-h)) (1)

I would like to now if is it possible multiply the equation by (1/h):

((f(x+h)-f(x))/ h)= c1*((g(x)-g(x-h))/z)+c2*((h(x)-h(x-h))/z)

Then approximate the differences by the derivates:

f '(x)=c1*g'(x)+c2*g'(2).

Or should I derivate the equation (1) in both sides, like this:

d[f(x+h)] = d [f(x)+c1*(g(x)-g(x-h))+c2(h(x)-h(x-h))]
dx dx
 
Aline Rocha said:
Ok, I'm going to try to write the problem again:
I have the following equation:

f(x+h)=f(x)+c1*(g(x)-g(x-h))+c2(h(x)-h(x-h)) (1)

I would like to now if is it possible multiply the equation by (1/h):

((f(x+h)-f(x))/ h)= c1*((g(x)-g(x-h))/z)+c2*((h(x)-h(x-h))/z)

Then approximate the differences by the derivates:

f '(x)=c1*g'(x)+c2*g'(2).

Or should I derivate the equation (1) in both sides, like this:

d[f(x+h)] = d [f(x)+c1*(g(x)-g(x-h))+c2(h(x)-h(x-h))]
dx dx


You could take the first approach provided the derivative of both g(x) and h(x) exists. This is reminiscent of the Taylor expansion series. Only, your equation does not have the higher order terms in it.
 

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