Transform Equation X(j+1)=X(j)+c1*(Y(j)-Y(j-1))+c2(Z(j)-Z(j-1)) into Diff Eq

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The discussion revolves around transforming the equation X(j+1) = X(j) + c1*(Y(j) - Y(j-1)) + c2(Z(j) - Z(j-1)) into a differential equation. The user proposes multiplying the equation by (1/z) and approximating differences with derivatives as z approaches 0. Clarification is sought regarding the meaning of "z" in the context of the equation and its relationship to Z(j). Another approach is suggested, involving the multiplication of the equation by (1/h) and deriving both sides to achieve the desired transformation. The response highlights that the first approach is valid if the derivatives of g(x) and h(x) exist, likening it to a Taylor expansion without higher-order terms.
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I have to transform this equation X(j+1)=X(j)+c1*(Y(j)-Y(j-1))+c2(Z(j)-Z(j-1))
in a differential one.

I would like to know if is it possible multiply the equation by (1/z), like this:

(X(j+1)-X(j)) / Z = c1*((Y(j)-Y(j-1))/ Z)+c2((Z(j)-Z(j-1)) / Z)

Then approximate the difference by derivates:

dX(j)=c1*dY(j)+c2*dZ(j) with z->0 ??
dz dz dz
 
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Aline Rocha said:
I have to transform this equation X(j+1)=X(j)+c1*(Y(j)-Y(j-1))+c2(Z(j)-Z(j-1))
in a differential one.

I would like to know if is it possible multiply the equation by (1/z), like this:

(X(j+1)-X(j)) / Z = c1*((Y(j)-Y(j-1))/ Z)+c2((Z(j)-Z(j-1)) / Z)

Then approximate the difference by derivates:

dX(j)=c1*dY(j)+c2*dZ(j) with z->0 ??
dz dz dz
What, exactly, is this "z" that you are dividing by? Is it the same as the function Z(j)?
And why would j+1 go to j as z goes to 0?
 
HallsofIvy said:
What, exactly, is this "z" that you are dividing by? Is it the same as the function Z(j)?
And why would j+1 go to j as z goes to 0?

Oh sorry! The "z" that I'm dividing isn't the same Z(j). And j+1=z+delta(z).
 
Ok, I'm going to try to write the problem again:
I have the following equation:

f(x+h)=f(x)+c1*(g(x)-g(x-h))+c2(h(x)-h(x-h)) (1)

I would like to now if is it possible multiply the equation by (1/h):

((f(x+h)-f(x))/ h)= c1*((g(x)-g(x-h))/z)+c2*((h(x)-h(x-h))/z)

Then approximate the differences by the derivates:

f '(x)=c1*g'(x)+c2*g'(2).

Or should I derivate the equation (1) in both sides, like this:

d[f(x+h)] = d [f(x)+c1*(g(x)-g(x-h))+c2(h(x)-h(x-h))]
dx dx
 
Aline Rocha said:
Ok, I'm going to try to write the problem again:
I have the following equation:

f(x+h)=f(x)+c1*(g(x)-g(x-h))+c2(h(x)-h(x-h)) (1)

I would like to now if is it possible multiply the equation by (1/h):

((f(x+h)-f(x))/ h)= c1*((g(x)-g(x-h))/z)+c2*((h(x)-h(x-h))/z)

Then approximate the differences by the derivates:

f '(x)=c1*g'(x)+c2*g'(2).

Or should I derivate the equation (1) in both sides, like this:

d[f(x+h)] = d [f(x)+c1*(g(x)-g(x-h))+c2(h(x)-h(x-h))]
dx dx


You could take the first approach provided the derivative of both g(x) and h(x) exists. This is reminiscent of the Taylor expansion series. Only, your equation does not have the higher order terms in it.
 
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