Transforming double integrals into Polar coordinates

In summary: Thanks for the help!In summary, the integral given in the conversation can be transformed to a polar coordinate form using the substitutions x = rcosθ and y = rsinθ. By solving for the boundaries, the integral can be rewritten as ∫π/40 log(√2cosθ)/cos2θ dθ, which can then be evaluated using integration by parts with the substitution u = r^2.
  • #1
lmstaples
31
0

Homework Statement


Show that:

[itex]I = \int\int_{T}\frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})(1 + y^{2})}dxdy = \int^{1}_{0}\frac{arctan(x)}{(1 + x^{2})}dx = \frac{\pi^{2}}{32}[/itex]

where T is the triangle with successive vertices [itex](0,0), (1,0), (1,1)[/itex].

*By transforming to polar coordinates [itex](r,θ)[/itex] show that:*

[itex]I = \int^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{0}\frac{log(\sqrt{2}cos(θ))}{cos(2θ)}dθ[/itex]


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Part one is fine:

[itex]I = \int\int_{T}\frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})(1 + y^{2})}dxdy = \int^{1}_{0}\underbrace{\int^{x}_{0}\frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})(1 + y^{2})}dy}_{A}dx[/itex]

[itex]A: \frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})}\int^{x}_{0}\frac{1}{(1 + y^{2})}dy = \frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})}\left[arctan(y)\right]^{x}_{0} = \frac{arctan(x)}{(1 + x^{2}}[/itex]

[itex]\Rightarrow I = \int^{1}_{0}\frac{arctan(x)}{(1 + x^{2})}dx[/itex]

[itex]Let:[/itex] [itex]u = arctan(x)[/itex]

[itex]\frac{du}{dx} = \frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})} \Rightarrow du = \frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})}dx[/itex]

[itex]x = 0 \Rightarrow u = 0[/itex]
[itex]x = 1 \Rightarrow u = \frac{\pi}{4}[/itex]

[itex]\Rightarrow I = \int^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{0}udu = \left[\frac{1}{2}u^{2}\right]^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{0} = \frac{\pi^{2}}{32}.[/itex]


PART 2

[itex]x = rcos(\vartheta)[/itex]
[itex]y = rsin(\vartheta)[/itex]

[itex]Boundaries:[/itex]
[itex](i) y = 0 \Rightarrow rsin(θ) = 0[/itex]
[itex](ii) x = 1 \Rightarrow rcos(θ) = 1[/itex]
[itex](iii) y = x \Rightarrow rsin(θ) = rcos(θ) \Rightarrow tan(θ) = 1 \Rightarrow θ = \frac{\pi}{4}[/itex]

From then on everything seems to get very complex and I'm not really sure what the limits are either.

I was wondering if it was possible to go simply from:

[itex]I = \int^{1}_{0}\frac{arctan(x)}{(1 + x^{2})}dx[/itex]

to:

[itex]I = \int^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{0}\frac{log(\sqrt{2}cos(θ))}{cos(2θ}dθ[/itex]

Please help :(
 
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  • #2
OK - you want to show that transforming to polar coordinates does this:$$I = \int\int_{T}\frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})(1 + y^{2})}dxdy \rightarrow \int^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{0}\frac{\log(\sqrt{2}\cos \theta)}{\cos 2 \theta }d\theta$$Is that supposed to be a natural logarithm on the RHS?

You have noticed that:
[itex]x = r\cos\theta[/itex]
[itex]y = r\sin\theta[/itex]

Boundaries:
[itex]y = 0 \Rightarrow r\sin\theta = 0[/itex]
[itex]x = 1 \Rightarrow r\cos\theta = 1[/itex]
[itex]y = x \Rightarrow r\sin\theta = r\cos(\theta) \Rightarrow \tan\theta = 1 \Rightarrow \theta = \frac{\pi}{4}[/itex]

You also need to realize that:
##dx.dy = dA = r.dr.d\theta## (check)

Transforming the integrand would involve using the right trig identities - equip yourself with a table of them, and see that you are looking for something with ##\cos 2 \theta## ... the logarithm probably comes from integrating over ##r##.

Please show your working.
 
  • #3
[itex]dx.dy=dA=r.dr.dθ[/itex] that's a given

not sure about the limits on r...

[itex](expanding gives:[/itex]

[itex]\int^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{0}\int^{?}_{0}\frac{r}{(1 + r^{2}sin^{2}(θ) + r^{2}cos^{2}(θ) + r^{4}sin^{2}(θ)cos^{2}(θ))}drdθ[/itex]

[itex]= \int^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{0}\int^{?}_{0}\frac{r}{(1 + r^{2} + r^{4}sin^{2}(θ)cos^{2}(θ))}drdθ[/itex]

[itex]= \int^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{0}\int^{?}_{0}\frac{1}{\frac{1}{r} + r + r^{3}sin^{2}(θ)cos^{2}(θ))}drdθ[/itex]

then it gets confusing unless maybe you make a nice substitution?
 
  • #4
Try u = r^2

Regarding the limits, r is the distance from (0, 0) to (x, y) on the the x = 1 line.
 
  • #5
When me and my friend first tried we got the upper limit as sqrt(2)?

Unless its still a function in θ
 
  • #6
My friend and I*
 
  • #7
sqrt(2) can be the distance to ONE point; you have a segment from (1, 0) to (1, 1), so the distance must be a function of the polar angle.
 
  • #8
The boundary x = 1 gives:
rcos(θ) = 1 which is:
r = 1/cos(θ)

Hmmm
 
Last edited:
  • #9
That seems OK.
 
  • #10
integral = -1/2 sec(2 theta) (log(r^2 (-cos(2 theta))+r^2+2)-log(r^2 cos(2 theta)+r^2+2))+constant
 
  • #11
You have demonstrated mastery of LATEX, so please use it for complex expressions.

Please show how you obtained that result.
 
  • #12
LATEX is very difficult on a mobile sorry :(

Thanks for the mastery compliment :)

As for how I obtained the result... WolframAlpha

But it times out when you try to put limits from 0 to 1/cos(θ)
 
  • #13
I am sure you can plug in the integration limits manually.
 
  • #14
It came out perfectly :D
 

FAQ: Transforming double integrals into Polar coordinates

1. What is the purpose of transforming double integrals into polar coordinates?

Transforming double integrals into polar coordinates allows us to solve integrals that would be difficult or impossible to solve using Cartesian coordinates. It also simplifies the calculation of areas and volumes in certain cases.

2. How do you convert a double integral from Cartesian to polar coordinates?

To convert a double integral from Cartesian to polar coordinates, we use the following substitutions:
x = r cos(theta)
y = r sin(theta)
and substitute in the given equation. We also need to change the limits of integration accordingly.

3. What is the relationship between the Jacobian and the conversion from Cartesian to polar coordinates?

The Jacobian is a determinant that represents the scaling factor between two coordinate systems. In the case of converting from Cartesian to polar coordinates, the Jacobian is equal to r and determines the change in area between the two coordinate systems.

4. Are there any limitations to using polar coordinates for solving double integrals?

While polar coordinates can simplify the calculation of certain integrals, they are not always the most efficient or appropriate choice. In some cases, using Cartesian coordinates may be more straightforward and yield faster results. It is important to consider the problem at hand before deciding which coordinate system to use.

5. Can polar coordinates be used for solving triple integrals?

Yes, polar coordinates can be applied to triple integrals as well. In this case, we use the following substitutions:
x = r sin(phi) cos(theta)
y = r sin(phi) sin(theta)
z = r cos(phi)
and adjust the limits of integration accordingly. This can be useful for solving problems involving cylindrical or spherical coordinates.

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