Trouble with function definition

monea83
Messages
20
Reaction score
0
Given is the following function (nevermind what the function h is):

<br /> g(t, q) = \int_0^1 \frac{\partial h(ts, q)}{\partial(ts)} ds<br />

This function is supposed to be defined for t = 0. However, I don't see how - the partial derivative in the integral then becomes \frac{\partial h(0, q)}{\partial(0)} and this does not make any sense to me.

If it's any help, this was taken from "do Carmo, Riemannian Geometry", Chapter 0, Lemma 5.5
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Any derivative is a function, which can take on a particular value for a particular value of the argument. For your integral, by setting t=0, the integrand is no longer dependent on s, so the integral is simply the value of the partial derivative at t=0.
 
Thanks for your answer, I think I understand it better now. The one thing that still bothers me is the \partial(ts). How is this to be interpreted? Is it just a placeholder that says "partial differentiation by the first argument"?
 
That's what it looks like to me. Let u=ts, take the partial derivative with respect to u and then set u=ts after-wards before integrating with respect to s.
 
For original Zeta function, ζ(s)=1+1/2^s+1/3^s+1/4^s+... =1+e^(-slog2)+e^(-slog3)+e^(-slog4)+... , Re(s)>1 Riemann extended the Zeta function to the region where s≠1 using analytical extension. New Zeta function is in the form of contour integration, which appears simple but is actually more inconvenient to analyze than the original Zeta function. The original Zeta function already contains all the information about the distribution of prime numbers. So we only handle with original Zeta...
Back
Top