Trouble with Wick rotation in 1+1d abelian Higgs model

In summary, when solving for instanton solutions in a 1+1d abelian Higgs model, it is convenient to work in Euclidean space using the substitution x^0 \rightarrow -ix_4^E,\quad x^1 \rightarrow x_1^E and the corresponding substitution for the covariant derivative. However, when performing the Wick rotation, the author seems to be getting a different result for the scalar kinetic term compared to what is seen in other sources. They are unsure of where they have made a mistake and are seeking help to figure it out. The conversation also touches on the importance of being careful with indices and their transformations.
  • #1
rgoerke
11
0
When solving for instanton solutions in a 1+1d abelian Higgs model, it's convenient to work in Euclidean space using the substitution
[tex]x^0 \rightarrow -ix_4^E,\quad x^1 \rightarrow x_1^E[/tex]
The corresponding substitution for the covariant derivative is
[tex]D^0 \rightarrow iD_4^E,\quad D^1 \rightarrow D_1^E[/tex]
Now, many sources will write out the Euclidean action that you get from this substitution, and I am able to reproduce the gauge kinetic term and the potential term, but I'm doing something stupid with the scalar kinetic term. In real space, we have
[tex]\frac{1}{2}\left(D_{\mu}\phi\right)^*\left(D^{\mu}\phi\right)[/tex]
doing the Wick rotation,
[tex]\frac{1}{2}\left(\left(D_0\phi\right)^*\left(D_0\phi\right) - \left(D_1\phi\right)^*\left(D_1\phi\right)\right)[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}\left(\left(-iD_4^E\phi\right)^*\left(-iD_4^E\phi\right) - \left(D_1^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_1^E\phi\right)\right)[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}\left((i)\left(D_4^E\phi\right)^*(-i)\left(D_4^E\phi\right) - \left(D_1^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_1^E\phi\right)\right)[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}\left(\left(D_4^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_4^E\phi\right) - \left(D_1^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_1^E\phi\right)\right)[/tex]
but in order to reproduce what I see in various sources, I should be getting
[tex]-\frac{1}{2}\left|D_{\mu}^E\phi\right|^2[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}\left(-\left(D_4^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_4^E\phi\right) - \left(D_1^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_1^E\phi\right)\right)[/tex]
This is a very straightforward process, clearly I am missing something very obvious or doing something completely wrong, but I've stared at this for a while and I'm just not sure what it is.

Thanks for you help!
 
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  • #2
How, after the Wick rotation, did you get from line 2 to line 3?
Should there be an extra -1 factor ?
 
  • #3
In addition to what Harry said, you should be careful with your up/down indices, depending on which convention you use you should pay attention to minus signs.
 
  • #4
Hi, thanks for your responses.

I'm getting from line 2 to 3 by taking the complex conjugate:
[tex]\left(-iD_0\phi\right)^* =(-i)^*\left(D_0\phi\right)^*=(i)\left(D_0\phi\right)^*[/tex]

As for indicies, I have tried to be as careful as possible; if you see a mistake please point it out.

This seems like a stupidly simple thing to get caught-up on, but I just can't figure out how this rotation to Euclidean space works.
 
  • #5
Well, you have $$D_{0}$$ and $$D^0$$, should they transform the same way (with the same sign)?
 
  • #6
...should they transform the same way (with the same sign)?

Yes, I believe so. In any case I don't really need to know explicitly how D^0 transforms since I can write everything in terms of D_0,
[tex]D_{\mu}D^{\mu} = g^{\mu\nu}D_{\mu}D_{\nu} = D_0D_0 - D_1D_1[/tex]
 
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