Two-electron Ground State of a Spin-Independent Hamiltonian is a singlet

In summary, the mean energy of a two-electron system in a given state can be written in a specific equation. By analyzing the characteristics of the orbital ground state, it can be concluded that the lowest value of this equation is the triplet ground-state energy when using antisymmetric wavefunctions and the singlet ground-state energy when using symmetric wavefunctions. This is due to the fact that a node in the wavefunction increases kinetic energy, the wavefunction can be chosen as positive, and the wavefunction is symmetric under interchange of particles. Therefore, the orbital ground state is unique and the spin ground state must be antisymmetric, resulting in the singlet state.
  • #1
wc2351
6
0

Homework Statement


The problem is from Ashcroft&Mermin, Ch32, #2(a). (This is for self-study, not coursework.)

The mean energy of a two-electron system with Hamiltonian
[tex]\mathcal{H} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(∇_1^2 + ∇_2^2) + V(r_1, r_2)[/tex]
in the state ψ can be written (after an integration by parts) in the form:
[tex]
E = \int d{\bf r}_1 d{\bf r}_2 \left[\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\{|∇_1\psi|^2 + |∇_2\psi|^2\} + V({\bf r}_1,{\bf r}_2)|\psi|^2 \right]
[/tex]

Show that the lowest value of the above equation assumes over all normalized antisymmetric differentiable wavefunctions ψ that vanish at infinity is the triplet ground-state energy E_t, and that when symmetric functions are used the lowest value is the singlet ground-state energy E_s.

Homework Equations


Just basic knowledge of quantum mechanics? The proof should be elementary it seems...

The Attempt at a Solution



Before proving this theorem, it seemed natural to me that the ground state should be singlet because if the spin state is triplet, it is symmetric so the spatial wavefunction is anti-symmetric, and thus the existence of a node indicates that it has higher energy than the singlet wavefunction.

But I don't know how to proceed from the statement of the problem. Naive applicatin of the Euler-lagrange equation gives me Schrodinger's equation with zero energy. I don't know how I should use the parity of wavefunction since it is enclosed by the absolute signs.

Thank you for your help in advance.
 
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  • #2
Hi wc2351,

it just so happens that I just solved this problem for the class I am TAing.

You have the right idea for the proof, but let me lay down the final steps in order for the benefit of anyone who might read it. The key is that the two-electrons Schrödinger equation for the orbital wavefunction [itex]\psi(\mathbf{r}_1,\mathbf{r}_2)[/itex] can be viewed as the single-particle Schrödinger equation in 6 dimensions. Therefore, all we know about the single particle wavefunction also applies here.

I) As you point out, the orbital ground state cannot have any nodes because a node costs more kinetic energy than it can decrease the potential energy.

II) Because the Schrödinger equation is real, the eigenfunctions can always be chosen real. More precisely, if [itex]\psi[/itex] is a solution to the time-independent Schrödinger equation, then so is [itex]\psi + \psi^*[/itex]. Because the orbital ground state wavefunction has no nodes, it can then always be chosen positive.

III) As a bonus, this shows that the orbital ground state wavefunction is unique, because two positive wavefunctions cannot be orthogonal.

IV) Because the potential is symmetric under interchange of particles, we must have:

[itex]|\psi(\mathbf{r}_1,\mathbf{r}_2)|^2 = |\psi(\mathbf{r}_2,\mathbf{r}_1)|^2[/itex]

But the wavefunction is real so:

[itex]\psi(\mathbf{r}_1,\mathbf{r}_2)^2= \psi(\mathbf{r}_2,\mathbf{r}_1)^2[/itex]

and it can be chosen positive so we can take the square root:

[itex]\psi(\mathbf{r}_1,\mathbf{r}_2)= \psi(\mathbf{r}_2,\mathbf{r}_1)[/itex]

i.e. the orbital ground state is symmetric.

V) By Pauli exclusion, the spin ground state must therefore be antisymmetric. But for two electrons, the only antisymmetric spin state is the singlet. That completes the proof.

B.D.
 

What does it mean for a Hamiltonian to be spin-independent?

A Hamiltonian is spin-independent if it does not depend on the spin of the particles in the system. This means that the Hamiltonian treats particles with different spin orientations in the same way and does not distinguish between them.

What is a singlet state?

A singlet state is a quantum state in which the total spin of a system is zero. In the context of the two-electron ground state, this means that the two electrons have opposite spin orientations, canceling out each other's spin and resulting in a net spin of zero.

Why is the two-electron ground state of a spin-independent Hamiltonian a singlet?

This is because the spin-independent Hamiltonian treats both electrons in the system equally, resulting in an equal probability for the electrons to occupy either the higher or lower energy orbital. This leads to the two electrons having opposite spin orientations, resulting in a singlet state.

What is the significance of the two-electron ground state being a singlet?

The singlet state of the two-electron ground state has important implications in quantum mechanics, particularly in the study of electron-electron interactions and the properties of atoms and molecules. It also plays a crucial role in the understanding of chemical bonding and the behavior of materials.

Are there any exceptions to the two-electron ground state being a singlet for spin-independent Hamiltonians?

Yes, there are some rare cases where the two-electron ground state may not be a singlet, such as when there are strong magnetic interactions present in the system. However, these cases are uncommon and the two-electron ground state is typically a singlet for spin-independent Hamiltonians.

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