- #1

neophysique

- 30

- 0

for the case of momentum and position, but I'm stumped.

Suppose one can measure the position of a particle

with arbitrary precision. Suppose the measurement

of this particle's positions were made at time t= 0 and

then time t=1. The vector length of the particle path

divided by time then would yield the velocity of

the particle at time t=1, per definition. If the mass

of the particle was also constant then per definition

mv= momentum should yield the exact momentum

of the particle at t=1 , no?

If the above is accurate, how does one get to an

Uncertainty Principle? I'm sure the math leads

to this Principle but I'm having a hard time

relating it physically.