MHB Understanding Differentiability and Continuity in Complex Analysis

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The discussion revolves around the differing proofs of the relationship between differentiability and continuity in complex analysis as presented in two textbooks. One proof by John B. Conway includes modulus/norm signs, while the other by Mathews and Howell does not. Participants argue that both proofs are fundamentally equivalent, as limits involving complex functions yield the same results regardless of the notation used. However, some express confusion over the necessity of modulus/norm signs in Conway's proof, suggesting it may be an unnecessary elaboration. Ultimately, the conversation highlights the nuances in mathematical proofs and their interpretations in complex analysis.
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I have been reading two books on complex analysis and my problem is that the two books give slightly different and possibly incompatible proofs that, for a function of a complex variable, differentiability implies continuity ...

The two books are as follows:

"Functions of a Complex Variable I" (Second Edition) ... by John B. Conway

"Complex Analysis for Mathematics and Engineering" by John H. Mathews and Russel W. Howell (M&H) [Fifth Edition] ... Conway's proof that for a function of a complex variable, differentiability implies continuity ... reads as follows:
View attachment 9258
Mathews and Howell's proof that for a function of a complex variable, differentiability implies continuity ... reads as follows:
View attachment 9259
Now, as can be seen in the above proofs, Conway uses modulus/norm signs around the expressions in the proof while Mathews and Howell do not ...Can someone explain the differences ... are both correct ... ?

Surely the Conway proof is more valid as the proof involves limits which involve ideas like "close to" which need modulus/norms ...Hope someone can clarify this issue ...

Peter
 

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  • M&H - Theorem 3.1 ... .png
    M&H - Theorem 3.1 ... .png
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They are equivalent. If \lim_{x\to a} f(x)= b then \lim_{x\to a} |f(x)|= |b| and if b= 0 the converse is also true.
 
HallsofIvy said:
They are equivalent. If \lim_{x\to a} f(x)= b then \lim_{x\to a} |f(x)|= |b| and if b= 0 the converse is also true.

Thanks for the help HallsofIvy ...

But ... it leaves me thinking that Conway made a pointless elaboration of his proof as modulus/norm signs were unnecessary ... indeed, I have no idea why he included them ...

Peter
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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