From the fig 1 & 2 in the attachment. i) what is the sign of potential difference in fig.1 Vp – VQ ii) And in fig.2 VQ – VP For simplicity, lets take value at P,Q and R as in the figure(attach) for a unit +ve charge. Both the answer are positive. I can understand i) is positive but not ii), as that means VQ > VP. I know this is what we get when we use the formulae V = Q/4ε°r. But my understanding near the source charge, the potential to do work should always be greater i.e Vp > VQ . Electric potential at a place is defined as the potential of a unit +ve charge to do work when placed at that point and therefore point near the source would always have greater potential. What is wrong on my understanding? Also, can't we take unit -ve charge as test charge, since it too has the same potential to do work as the unit +ve charge, only direction of work done is opposite. Thanks.